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                            Counter-Terrorism Act 20082008 CHAPTER 28An Act to confer further powers to gather and share 
information for counter-terrorism and other purposes; to make further provision 
about the detention and questioning of terrorist suspects and the prosecution 
and punishment of terrorist offences; to impose notification requirements on 
persons convicted of such offences; to confer further powers to act against 
terrorist financing, money laundering and certain other activities; to provide 
for review of certain Treasury decisions and about evidence in, and other 
matters connected with, review proceedings; to amend the law relating to 
inquiries; to amend the definition of “terrorism”; to amend the enactments 
relating to terrorist offences, control orders and the forfeiture of terrorist 
cash; to provide for recovering the costs of policing at certain gas facilities; 
to amend provisions about the appointment of special advocates in Northern 
Ireland; and for connected purposes. 9  [26th November 2008] 
                                Be it enacted by the Queen’s 
most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Lords 
Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and 
by the authority of the same, as follows:— Part 
1 Powers to gather and 
share information  Power to remove documents for examination  1 Power to 
remove documents for examination  (1) This section applies to a search under any of the 
following provisions—  (a) section 43(1) of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) 
(search of suspected terrorist);  (b) section 43(2) of that Act (search of person 
arrested under section 41 on suspicion of being a terrorist);  (c) paragraph 1, 3, 11, 15, 28 or 31 of Schedule 5 to 
that Act (terrorist investigations);  (d) section 52(1) or (3)(b) of the Anti-terrorism, 
Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (search for evidence of commission of 
weapons-related offences);  (e) section 7A, 7B or 7C of the Prevention of 
Terrorism Act 2005 
(c. 2) (searches in connection with control orders);  (f) section 28 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11) 
(search for terrorist publications).  (2) A 
constable who carries out a search to which this section applies may, for the 
purpose of ascertaining whether a document is one that may be seized, remove the 
document to another place for examination and retain it there until the 
examination is completed.  (3) Where a constable carrying out a search to which 
this section applies has power to remove a document by virtue of this section, 
and the document—  (a) consists of information that is stored in 
electronic form, and  (b) is 
accessible from the premises being searched,  the constable may require the document to be 
produced in a form in which it can be taken away, and in which it is visible and 
legible or from which it can readily be produced in a visible and legible 
form. (4) A 
constable has the same powers of seizure in relation to a document removed under 
this section as the constable would have if it had not been removed (and if 
anything discovered on examination after removal had been discovered without it 
having been removed).  2 Offence of 
obstruction  (1) A 
person who wilfully obstructs a constable in the exercise of the power conferred 
by section 1 commits an offence.  (2) A 
person guilty of an offence under this section is liable on summary 
conviction—  (a) in 
England and Wales, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 51 weeks or a fine 
not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale, or both;  (b) in 
Scotland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding twelve months or a fine not 
exceeding level 5 on the standard scale, or both;  (c) in 
Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding six months or a fine 
not exceeding level 5 on the standard scale, or both.  (3) In 
subsection (2)(a) as it applies in relation to an offence committed before 
section 281(5) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (c. 44) comes 
into force, for “51 weeks” substitute “six months”.  3 Items subject 
to legal privilege  (1) Section 1 does not authorise a constable to 
remove a document if the constable has reasonable cause to believe—  (a) it 
is an item subject to legal privilege, or  (b) it 
has an item subject to legal privilege comprised in it.  (2) Subsection (1)(b) does not prevent the removal of 
a document if it is not reasonably practicable for the item subject to legal 
privilege to be separated from the rest of the document without prejudicing any 
use of the rest of the document that would be lawful if it were subsequently 
seized.  (3) If, 
after a document has been removed under section 1, it is discovered that— 
 (a) it 
is an item subject to legal privilege, or  (b) it 
has an item subject to legal privilege comprised in it,  the document must be returned forthwith. (4) Subsection (3)(b) does not require the return of 
a document if it is not reasonably practicable for the item subject to legal 
privilege to be separated from the rest of the document without prejudicing any 
use of the rest of the document that would be lawful if it were subsequently 
seized.  (5) Where an item subject to legal privilege is 
removed under subsection (2) or retained under subsection (4), it must not be 
examined or put to any other use except to the extent necessary for facilitating 
the examination of the rest of the document.  (6) For 
the purposes of this section “item subject to legal privilege”—  (a) in 
England and Wales, has the same meaning as in the Police and Criminal Evidence 
Act 1984 (c. 60);  (b) in 
Scotland, has the meaning given by section 412 of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c. 
29);  (c) in 
Northern Ireland, has the same meaning as in the Police and Criminal Evidence 
(Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 
12)).  4 Record of 
removal  (1) A 
constable who removes a document under section 1 must make a written record of 
the removal.  (2) The 
record must be made as soon as is reasonably practicable and in any event within 
the period of 24 hours beginning with the time when the document was 
removed.  (3) The 
record must—  (a) describe the document,  (b) specify the object of the removal,  (c) where the document was found in the course of a 
search of a person, state the person’s name (if known),  (d) where the document was found in the course of a 
search of any premises, state the address of the premises where the document was 
found,  (e) where the document was found in the course of a 
search of any premises, state the name (if known) of—  (i) any 
person who, when the record is made, appears to the constable to have been the 
occupier of the premises when the document was found, and  (ii) any person who, when the record is made, appears 
to the constable to have had custody or control of the document when it was 
found, and  (f) state the date and time when the document was 
removed.  (4) If, 
in a case where the document was found in the course of a search of a person, 
the constable does not know the person’s name, the record must include a 
description of the person.  (5) If, 
in a case where the document was found in the course of a search of any 
premises, the constable does not know the name of a person mentioned in 
subsection (3)(e) but is able to provide a description of that person, the 
record must include such a description.  (6) The 
record must identify the constable by reference to the constable’s police 
number.  (7) The 
following are entitled, on a request made to the constable, to a copy of the 
record made under this section—  (a) where the document was found in the course of a 
search of a person, that person; and  (b) where the document was found in the course of a 
search of any premises—  (i) the 
occupier of the premises when it was found, and  (ii) any person who had custody or control of the 
document when it was found.  (8) The 
constable must provide the copy within a reasonable time from the making of the 
request.  (9) If, 
in England and Wales or Northern Ireland, the document is found in the course of 
a search under a warrant, the constable must make an endorsement on the warrant 
stating that the document has been removed under section 1.  (10) In 
the application of this section in relation to the search of a vehicle, the 
reference to the address of the premises is to the location of the vehicle 
together with its registration number (if any).  5 Retention of 
documents  (1) A 
document may not be retained by virtue of section 1 for more than 48 hours 
without further authorisation.  (2) A 
constable of at least the rank of chief inspector may authorise the retention of 
the document for a further period or periods if satisfied that—  (a) the 
examination of the document is being carried out expeditiously, and  (b) it 
is necessary to continue the examination for the purpose of ascertaining whether 
the document is one that may be seized.  (3) This does not permit the retention of a document 
after the end of the period of 96 hours beginning with the time when it was 
removed for examination.  6 Access to 
documents  (1) Where—  (a) a 
document is retained by virtue of section 5, and  (b) a 
request for access to the document is made to the officer in charge of the 
investigation by a person within subsection (3),  the officer must grant that person access to the 
document, under the supervision of a constable, subject to subsection (4). (2) Where—  (a) a 
document is retained by virtue of section 5, and  (b) a 
request for a copy of the document is made to the officer in charge of the 
investigation by a person within subsection (3),  that person must be provided with a copy of the 
document within a reasonable time from the making of the request, subject to 
subsection (4). (3) The 
persons entitled to make a request under subsection (1) or (2) are—  (a) where the document was found in the course of a 
search of a person, that person,  (b) where the document was found in the course of a 
search of any premises—  (i) the 
occupier of the premises when it was found, and  (ii) any person who had custody or control of the 
document when it was found, and  (c) a 
person acting on behalf of a person within paragraph (a) or (b).  (4) The 
officer in charge of the investigation may refuse access to the document, or (as 
the case may be) refuse to provide a copy of it, if the officer has reasonable 
grounds for believing that to do so—  (a) would prejudice any investigation for the 
purposes of which—  (i) the 
original search was carried out, or  (ii) the document was removed or is being 
retained,  (b) would prejudice the investigation of any 
offence,  (c) would prejudice any criminal proceedings that may 
be brought as the result of an investigation within paragraph (a) or (b), 
or  (d) would facilitate the commission of an 
offence.  (5) In 
this section—  
                            
                                “the officer in charge of the 
investigation” means the officer in charge of the investigation for the purposes 
of which the document is being retained; and
                                “the original search” means the search 
in the course of which the document was removed. 7 Photographing 
and copying of documents  (1) Where a document is removed under section 1 it 
must not be photographed or copied, except that—  (a) a 
document may be copied for the purpose of providing a copy in response to a 
request under section 6(2), and  (b) a 
document consisting of information stored in electronic form may be copied for 
the purpose of producing it in a visible and legible form.  (2) Where the original document is returned, any copy 
under subsection (1)(b) must—  (a) in 
the case of a copy in electronic form, be destroyed or made inaccessible as soon 
as is reasonably practicable, and  (b) in 
any other case, be returned at the same time as the original document is 
returned.  (3) The 
following are entitled, on a request made to the relevant chief officer of 
police, to a certificate that subsection (2) has been complied with—  (a) where the document was found in the course of a 
search of a person, that person;  (b) where the document was found in the course of a 
search of any premises—  (i) the 
occupier of the premises when it was found, and  (ii) any person who had custody or control of the 
document when it was found.  (4) The 
certificate must be issued by the relevant chief officer of police, or a person 
authorised by or on behalf of that chief officer, not later than the end of the 
period of three months beginning with the day on which the request is 
made.  (5) For 
this purpose the relevant chief officer of police is—  (a) where the search was carried out in England or 
Wales, the chief officer of police in whose area the search was carried 
out;  (b) where the search was carried out in Scotland, the 
chief constable of the police force for the area in which the search was carried 
out;  (c) where the search was carried out in Northern 
Ireland, the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland. 
 8 Return of 
documents  (1) Where a document removed under section 1 is 
required to be returned, it must be returned—  (a) where the document was found in the course of a 
search of a person, to that person;  (b) where the document was found in the course of a 
search of any premises, to the occupier of the premises when it was 
found.  (2) Subsection (1) does not apply where a person who 
is required to return the document is satisfied that another person has a better 
right to it; and in such a case it must be returned—  (a) to 
that other person, or  (b) to 
whoever appears to the person required to return the document to have the best 
right to it.  (3) Where different persons claim to be entitled to 
the return of the document, it may be retained for as long as is reasonably 
necessary for the determination of the person to whom it must be 
returned.  (4) This section also applies in relation to a copy 
of a document that is required to be returned at the same time as the original; 
and in such a case references to the document in paragraphs (a) and (b) of 
subsection (1) are to the original.  9 Power to 
remove documents: supplementary provisions  (1) In 
sections 1 to 8 “document” includes any record and, in particular, includes 
information stored in electronic form.  (2) In 
the application of those sections to a search under 52(1) of the Anti-terrorism, 
Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24), for references to a constable substitute references 
to an authorised officer within the meaning of that section.  (3) In 
the application of those sections in relation to the search of a vehicle 
references to the occupier of the premises are to the person in charge of the 
vehicle.  Power to 
take fingerprints and samples from person subject to control order  10 Power 
to take fingerprints and samples: England and Wales  (1) In 
section 61 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) 
(fingerprinting), after subsection (6B) insert—  “(6BA) A constable may take a person’s 
fingerprints without the appropriate consent if the person is subject to a 
control order.”.  (2) In 
section 63 of that Act (other samples), after subsection (3C) insert— 
 “(3D) A non-intimate sample may also be taken 
from a person without the appropriate consent if the person is subject to a 
control order.”.  (3) In 
section 63A of that Act (fingerprints and samples: supplementary 
provisions)—  (a) in 
subsection (1) (checking against other fingerprints or samples), after “reported 
for such an offence” insert “or he is or has been subject to a control 
order”;  (b) after subsection (6) insert—  “(6A) A constable may require a person who is 
subject to a control order to attend a police station in order to—  (a) have his fingerprints taken in accordance 
with section 61(6BA);  (b) have a non-intimate sample taken in 
accordance with section 63(3D).”.  (4) In 
section 64 of that Act (destruction of fingerprints and samples), after 
subsection (1A) insert—  “(1AA) Where fingerprints or samples are taken 
from a person who is subject to a control order the fingerprints or samples may 
be retained after they have fulfilled the purposes for which they were taken but 
shall not be used by any person except as described in subsection (1AB).”.  (5) In 
section 65(1) of that Act (interpretation), at the appropriate places 
insert—  ““control 
order” has the same meaning as in the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005;”; ““person 
subject to a control order” means a person who has become bound by a control 
order (see section 7(8) of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005) that remains in 
force;”. (6) The 
following amendments of that Act are consequential on those above—  (a) in 
section 61—  (i) in 
subsection (6C) after “subsection (6A)” insert “or (6BA)”;  (ii) in 
subsection (7) for “or (6A)” substitute “, (6A) or (6BA)”;  (iii) in subsection (7A) after “subsection (6A)”, in 
both places where it occurs, insert “or (6BA)”;  (b) in 
section 63 (other samples)—  (i) in 
subsection (8A) for “or (3C)” substitute “, (3C) or (3D)”;  (ii) in 
the opening words of subsection (8B) after “police station” insert “or by virtue 
of subsection (3D) at a place other than a police station”;  (iii) in paragraph (a) of that subsection after 
“officer” insert “, or, in a subsection (3D) case, a constable,”;  (c) in 
section 63A(7) after “subsection (4)” insert “or (6A)”;  (d) in 
section 64(1B) after “subsection (1A)” insert “, (1AA)”.  11 Power to 
take fingerprints and samples: Scotland  (1) This section applies in relation to a person who 
is subject to a control order in Scotland.  (2) A 
constable may—  (a) take from the person, or require the person to 
provide, any relevant physical data,  (b) with the authority of an officer of a rank no 
lower than inspector, take from the person any sample mentioned in paragraph 
(a), (b) or (c) of subsection (6) of section 18 (prints, samples  etc. in criminal investigations) of the 
Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46) (“the 
1995 Act”) by the means specified in that paragraph in relation to the 
sample,  (c) take, or direct a police custody and security 
officer to take, from the person a sample mentioned in subsection (6A) of that 
section by the means specified in that subsection.  (3) A 
constable may—  (a) require the person to attend a police station for 
the purposes of subsection (2), and  (b) arrest without warrant a person who fails to 
comply with such a requirement.  (4) A 
constable may use reasonable force in—  (a) taking any relevant physical data under 
subsection (2)(a),  (b) securing compliance with a requirement imposed by 
the constable under that subsection, or  (c) taking any sample under subsection (2)(b). 
 (5) A 
constable may, with the authority of an officer of a rank no lower than 
inspector, use reasonable force in taking any sample under subsection 
(2)(c).  (6) Any 
relevant physical data or sample obtained under this section, and information 
derived from it, may be retained but may not be used by any person 
except—  (a) for 
the purposes of a terrorist investigation, or  (b) in 
the interests of national security.  (7) Subject to subsection (6), any data or sample 
obtained under this section, or information derived from it, may, in particular, 
be checked against—  (a) other such data, samples or information, 
 (b) any 
of the relevant physical data, samples and information to which section 20 of 
the 1995 Act applies,  (c) any 
of the fingerprints, samples and information mentioned in section 63A(1)(a) and 
(b) of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) (checking of 
fingerprints and samples), and  (d) material to which section 18 of this Act applies 
(material not subject to existing statutory restrictions).  (8) In 
this section—  
                            
                                “control order” has the same meaning as 
in the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 (c. 2);
                                “person subject to a control order” 
means a person who has become bound by a control order (see section 7(8) of the 
Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005) that remains in force;
                                “relevant physical data” has the same 
meaning as it has for the purposes of section 18 of the 1995 Act (see 
subsections (7A) and (7B) of that section);
                                “terrorist investigation” has the 
meaning given in section 32 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 
11). 12 Power to 
take fingerprints and samples: Northern Ireland  (1) In 
Article 53(1) of the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 
(S.I. 1989/1341 
(N.I. 12)) (interpretation of Part VI), at the appropriate places insert— 
 ““control 
order” has the same meaning as in the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005;”; ““person 
subject to a control order” means a person who has become bound by a control 
order (see section 7(8) of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005) that remains in 
force;”. (2) In 
Article 61 of that Order (fingerprinting), after paragraph (6B) insert— 
 “(6BA) A constable may take a person’s 
fingerprints without the appropriate consent if the person is subject to a 
control order.”.  (3) In 
Article 63 of that Order (other samples), after paragraph (3B) insert— 
 “(3C) A non-intimate sample may also be taken 
from a person without the appropriate consent if the person is subject to a 
control order.”.  (4) In 
Article 63A of that Order (fingerprints and samples: supplementary 
provisions)—  (a) in 
paragraph (1) (checking against other fingerprints and samples), after “reported 
for such an offence” insert “or he is or has been subject to a control 
order”;  (b) after paragraph (6) insert—  “(6A) A constable may require a person who is 
subject to a control order to attend a police station in order to—  (a) have his fingerprints taken in accordance 
with Article 61(6BA);  (b) have a non-intimate sample taken in 
accordance with Article 63(3C).”.  (5) In 
Article 64 of that Order (destruction of fingerprints and samples), after 
paragraph (1A) insert—  “(1AA) Where fingerprints or samples are taken 
from a person who is subject to a control order the fingerprints or samples may 
be retained after they have fulfilled the purposes for which they were taken but 
shall not be used by any person except as described in paragraph (1AB).”.  (6) The 
following amendments of that Order are consequential on those above—  (a) in 
Article 61—  (i) in 
paragraph (6C) after “paragraph (6A)” insert “or (6BA)”;  (ii) in 
paragraph (7) for “or (6A)” substitute “, (6A) or (6BA)”;  (iii) in paragraph (7A) after “paragraph (6A)”, in both 
places where it occurs, insert “or (6BA)”;  (b) in 
Article 63—  (i) in 
paragraph (8A) for “or (3B)” substitute “, (3B) or (3C)”;  (ii) in 
the opening words of paragraph (8B) after “police station” insert “or by virtue 
of paragraph (3C) at a place other than a police station”;  (iii) in sub-paragraph (a) of that paragraph after 
“officer” insert “(or, in a paragraph (3C) case, a constable)”;  (c) in 
Article 63A(7) after “paragraph (4)” insert “or (6A)”;  (d) in 
Article 64(1B), after “paragraph (1A)” insert “, (1AA)”.  13 Power to 
take fingerprints and samples: transitional provision  The provisions of— 
                            
                                section 10 (power to take fingerprints 
and samples: England and Wales),
                                section 11 (power to take fingerprints 
and samples: Scotland), and
                                section 12 (power to take fingerprints 
and samples: Northern Ireland), have effect from the commencement of the relevant 
section regardless of when the control order was made. Retention 
and use of fingerprints and samples  14 Material subject to the Police and Criminal 
Evidence Act 1984  (1) The 
Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) is amended as follows.  (2) In 
section 63A(1) (fingerprints, impressions of footwear and samples: what they may 
be checked against), for paragraphs (a) and (b) substitute—  “(a) 
other fingerprints, impressions of 
footwear or samples—  (i) to which the person seeking to check has 
access and which are held by or on behalf of any one or more relevant 
law-enforcement authorities or are held in connection with or as a result of an 
investigation of an offence, or  (ii) which are held by or on behalf of the 
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service;  (b) information derived from other 
samples—  (i) which is contained in records to which the 
person seeking to check has access and which are held as mentioned in paragraph 
(a)(i) above, or  (ii) which is held by or on behalf of the 
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service.”.  (3) In 
section 63A(1ZA) (fingerprints from a person whose identity is unclear: what 
they may be checked against), for the words from “other fingerprints” to the 
end, substitute “other fingerprints—  (a) to which the person seeking to check has 
access and which are held by or on behalf of any one or more relevant 
law-enforcement authorities or which are held in connection with or as a result 
of an investigation of an offence, or  (b) which are held by or on behalf of the 
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service.”.  (4) In 
section 64(1A) (purposes for which fingerprints, impressions of footwear or 
samples may be retained and used), for the words from “except for purposes” to 
the end substitute “except as described in subsection (1AB)”.  (5) After subsection (1AA) of that section (inserted 
by section 10), insert—  “(1AB) The fingerprints, impressions of footwear 
or samples may be used—  (a) in the interests of national 
security,  (b) for purposes related to the prevention or 
detection of crime, the investigation of an offence or the conduct of a 
prosecution, or  (c) for purposes related to the identification 
of a deceased person or of the person from whom the material came.”.  (6) In 
subsection (1B) of that section, after “(1AA)” (inserted by section 10) insert 
“or (1AB)”.  15 Material 
subject to the Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 
                        (1) The 
Police and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)) is 
amended as follows.  (2) In 
Article 63A(1) (fingerprints and samples: what they may be checked against), for 
paragraphs (a) and (b), substitute—  “(a) 
other fingerprints, impressions of 
footwear or samples—  (i) to which the person seeking to check has 
access and which are held by or on behalf of any one or more relevant 
law-enforcement authorities or are held in connection with or as a result of an 
investigation of an offence, or  (ii) which are held by or on behalf of the 
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service;  (b) information derived from other 
samples—  (i) which is contained in records to which the 
person seeking to check has access and which are held as mentioned in paragraph 
(a)(i) above, or  (ii) which is held by or on behalf of the 
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service.”.  (3) In 
Article 63A(1ZA) (fingerprints from a person whose identity is unclear: what 
they may be checked against), for “other fingerprints” to the end, substitute 
“other 
fingerprints—  (a) to which the person seeking to check has 
access and which are held by or on behalf of any one or more relevant 
law-enforcement authorities or which are held in connection with or as a result 
of an investigation of an offence, or  (b) which are held by or on behalf of the 
Security Service or the Secret Intelligence Service.”.  (4) In 
Article 64(1A) (purposes for which fingerprints or samples may be retained and 
used), for the words from “except for purposes” to the end substitute “except as 
described in paragraph (1AB)”.  (5) After paragraph (1AA) of that Article (inserted 
by section 12) insert—  “(1AB) The fingerprints, impressions of footwear 
or samples may be used—  (a) in the interests of national 
security,  (b) for purposes related to the prevention or 
detection of crime, the investigation of an offence or the conduct of a 
prosecution, or  (c) for purposes related to the identification 
of a deceased person or of the person from whom the material came.”.  (6) In 
paragraph (1B) of that Article, after “(1AA)” (inserted by section 12) insert 
“or (1AB)”.  16 Material subject to the Terrorism Act 2000: 
England and Wales and Northern Ireland  (1) Paragraph 14 of Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 
2000 (rights of persons detained in England, Wales or Northern Ireland: 
retention and use of fingerprints and samples  etc) is amended as follows.  (2) In 
sub-paragraph (2) (purposes for which fingerprints and samples may be used) for 
the words from “or for purposes related” to the end substitute “or as mentioned 
in sub-paragraph (2A)”.  (3) After that sub-paragraph insert—  “(2A) The fingerprints or samples may be 
used—  (a) in the interests of national 
security,  (b) for purposes related to the prevention or 
detection of crime, the investigation of an offence or the conduct of a 
prosecution, or  (c) for purposes related to the identification 
of a deceased person or of the person from whom the material came.”.  (4) Omit sub-paragraph (3).  (5) In 
sub-paragraph (4) (what fingerprints, samples or other information may be 
checked against), after paragraph (b) insert—  “(ba) material to which section 18 of the 
Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 applies,”. 
 17 Material 
subject to the Terrorism Act 2000: Scotland  (1) Part 1 of Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000 
(treatment of detained persons) is amended as follows.  (2) In 
paragraph 20 (persons detained in Scotland: fingerprinting etc), in 
sub-paragraph (3) (retention and use of physical data or samples), for the words 
from “except” to the end substitute “except—  (a) for the purposes of a terrorist 
investigation,  (b) in the interests of national security, 
or  (c) for purposes related to the prevention or 
detection of crime, the investigation of an offence or the conduct of a 
prosecution.”.  (3) After paragraph 20, insert—  “21 (1) Section 20 of the Criminal Procedure 
(Scotland) Act 1995 applies to relevant physical data or samples taken from a 
person detained under Schedule 7 or section 41 at a police station in Scotland 
with the following modifications.  (2) Omit the references to impressions. 
 (3) For the words from “against other such 
data” to the end substitute “, subject to paragraph 20(3) of Schedule 8 to the 
Terrorism Act 2000, against—  (a) other such data, samples and 
information,  (b) any of the fingerprints, samples and 
information mentioned in section 63A(1)(a) and (b) of the Police and Criminal 
Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) (checking of fingerprints and samples), and 
 (c) material to which section 18 of the 
Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 applies.”. 
 18 Material not 
subject to existing statutory restrictions  (1) This section applies to—  (a) DNA samples or profiles, or  (b) fingerprints,  that are not held subject to existing statutory 
restrictions. (2) Material to which this section applies that is 
held by a law enforcement authority in England and Wales or Northern Ireland may 
be retained by that authority and used—  (a) in 
the interests of national security,  (b) for 
purposes related to the prevention or detection of crime, the investigation of 
an offence or the conduct of a prosecution, or  (c) for 
purposes related to the identification of a deceased person or of the person 
from whom the material came,  if the following condition is met. (3) The 
condition is that the material has been—  (a) obtained by the authority—  (i) pursuant to an authorisation under Part 3 of the 
Police Act 1997 (c. 
50) (authorisation of action in respect of property), or  (ii) in 
the course of surveillance, or use of a covert human intelligence source, 
authorised under Part 2 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 
23),  (b) supplied to the authority by another law 
enforcement authority, or  (c) otherwise lawfully obtained or acquired by the 
authority for any of the purposes mentioned in subsection (2).  (4) In 
subsection (2)—  (a) the 
reference to using material includes allowing a check to be made against it, or 
against information derived from it, or disclosing it to any person;  (b) the 
reference to crime includes any conduct that—  (i) constitutes a criminal offence (whether under the 
law of a part of the United Kingdom or of a country or territory outside the 
United Kingdom), or  (ii) is, or corresponds to, conduct that, if it took 
place in the United Kingdom, would constitute a criminal offence;  (c) the 
references to investigation and prosecution include, respectively, the 
investigation outside the United Kingdom of a crime or suspected crime and a 
prosecution brought in respect of a crime in a country or territory outside the 
United Kingdom.  (5) In 
this section—  
                            
                                “DNA sample” means any material that 
has come from a human body and consists of or includes human cells;
                                “DNA profile” means any information 
derived from a DNA sample;
                                “fingerprints” means a record (in any 
form and produced by any method) of the skin pattern and other physical 
characteristics or features of a person’s fingers or either of a person’s 
palms;
                                “law enforcement authority” means a 
police force, the Serious Organised Crime Agency or the Commissioners for Her 
Majesty’s Revenue and Customs or an authority having functions under the law of 
a country or territory outside the United Kingdom— 
                                    
                                        
                                            (a) corresponding to those of a police 
force, or (b) otherwise involving the investigation 
or prosecution of offences;
                                “police force” means any of the 
following— 
                                    
                                        
                                            (a) the metropolitan police 
force; (b) a police force maintained under section 
2 of the Police Act 1996 (c. 16) (police forces in England and Wales outside 
London); (c) the City of London police 
force; (d) any police force maintained under or by 
virtue of section 1 of the Police (Scotland) Act 1967 (c. 77); (e) the Police Service of Northern 
Ireland; (f) the Police Service of Northern Ireland 
Reserve; (g) the Ministry of Defence 
Police; (h) the Royal Navy Police; (i) the Royal Military Police; (j) the Royal Air Force Police; (k) the British Transport 
Police. (6) The 
following are “the existing statutory restrictions” referred to in subsection 
(1)—  (a) sections 63A and 64 of the Police and Criminal 
Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60);  (b) Articles 63A and 64 of the Police and Criminal 
Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 
12));  (c) paragraph 14 or 20(3) of Schedule 8 to the 
Terrorism Act 2000 
(c. 11);  (d) section 2(2) of the Security Service Act 1989 (c. 
5);  (e) section 1(2) of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c. 
13).  Disclosure 
of information and the intelligence services  19 Disclosure and the intelligence 
services  (1) A 
person may disclose information to any of the intelligence services for the 
purposes of the exercise by that service of any of its functions.  (2) Information obtained by any of the intelligence 
services in connection with the exercise of any of its functions may be used by 
that service in connection with the exercise of any of its other 
functions.  (3) Information obtained by the Security Service for 
the purposes of any of its functions may be disclosed by it—  (a) for 
the purpose of the proper discharge of its functions,  (b) for 
the purpose of the prevention or detection of serious crime, or  (c) for 
the purpose of any criminal proceedings.  (4) Information obtained by the Secret Intelligence 
Service for the purposes of any of its functions may be disclosed by it— 
 (a) for 
the purpose of the proper discharge of its functions,  (b) in 
the interests of national security,  (c) for 
the purpose of the prevention or detection of serious crime, or  (d) for 
the purpose of any criminal proceedings.  (5) Information obtained by  GCHQ for the purposes 
of any of its functions may be disclosed by it—  (a) for 
the purpose of the proper discharge of its functions, or  (b) for 
the purpose of any criminal proceedings.  (6) A 
disclosure under this section does not breach—  (a) any 
obligation of confidence owed by the person making the disclosure, or 
 (b) any 
other restriction on the disclosure of information (however imposed). 
 (7) The 
provisions of this section are subject to section 20 (savings and other 
supplementary provisions).  20 Disclosure 
and the intelligence services: supplementary provisions  (1) The 
provisions of section 19 (disclosure and use of information) do not affect the 
duties with respect to the obtaining or disclosure of information 
imposed—  (a) on 
the Director-General of the Security Service, by section 2(2) of the Security 
Service Act 1989;  (b) on 
the Chief of the Intelligence Service, by section 2(2) of the Intelligence 
Services Act 1994;  (c) on 
the Director of GCHQ, by section 4(2) of that Act.  (2) Nothing in that section authorises a disclosure 
that—  (a) contravenes the Data Protection Act 1998 (c. 29), 
or  (b) is 
prohibited by Part 1 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 
23).  (3) The 
provisions of that section are without prejudice to any rule of law authorising 
the obtaining, use or disclosure of information by any of the intelligence 
services.  (4) Schedule 1 contains amendments consequential on 
that section.  21 Disclosure 
and the intelligence services: interpretation  (1) In 
sections 19 and 20 “the intelligence services” means the Security Service, the 
Secret Intelligence Service and GCHQ.  (2) References in section 19 to the functions of 
those services are—  (a) in 
the case of the Security Service, to the functions specified in section 1(2) to 
(4) of the Security Service Act 1989 (c. 
5);  (b) in 
the case of the Secret Intelligence Service, to the functions specified in 
section 1(1)(a) and (b) of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c. 13), 
exercised in accordance with section 1(2) of that Act;  (c) in 
the case of GCHQ—  (i) to 
the functions specified in section 3(1)(a) of that Act, exercised in accordance 
with section 3(2) of that Act, and  (ii) to 
the functions specified in section 3(1)(b) of that Act.  (3) In 
sections 19, 20 and this section “GCHQ” has the same meaning as in the 
Intelligence Services Act 1994 (see section 3(3) of that Act).  (4) Section 81(5) of the Regulation of Investigatory 
Powers Act 2000 (meaning of “prevention” and “detection”), so far as it relates 
to serious crime, applies for the purposes of section 19 as it applies for the 
purposes of the provisions of that Act not contained in Chapter 1 of Part 1. Part 2 
Post-charge questioning of 
terrorist suspects  22 Post-charge questioning: England and 
Wales  (1) The 
following provisions apply in England and Wales.  (2) A 
judge of the Crown Court may authorise the questioning of a person about an 
offence—  (a) after the person has been charged with the 
offence or been officially informed that they may be prosecuted for it, 
or  (b) after the person has been sent for trial for the 
offence,  if the offence is a terrorism offence or it appears 
to the judge that the offence has a terrorist connection. (3) The 
judge—  (a) must specify the period during which questioning 
is authorised, and  (b) may 
impose such conditions as appear to be necessary in the interests of justice, 
which may include conditions as to the place where the questioning is to be 
carried out.  (4) The 
period during which questioning is authorised—  (a) begins when questioning pursuant to the 
authorisation begins and runs continuously from that time (whether or not 
questioning continues), and  (b) must not exceed 48 hours.  This is without prejudice to any application for a 
further authorisation under this section. (5) Where the person is in prison or otherwise 
lawfully detained, the judge may authorise the person’s removal to another place 
and detention there for the purpose of being questioned.  (6) A 
judge must not authorise the questioning of a person under this section unless 
satisfied—  (a) that further questioning of the person is 
necessary in the interests of justice,  (b) that the investigation for the purposes of which 
the further questioning is proposed is being conducted diligently and 
expeditiously, and  (c) that what is authorised will not interfere unduly 
with the preparation of the person’s defence to the charge in question or any 
other criminal charge.  (7) Codes of practice under section 66 of the Police 
and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (c. 60) must make provision about the questioning 
of a person by a constable in accordance with this section.  (8) Nothing in this section prevents codes of 
practice under that section making other provision for the questioning of a 
person by a constable about an offence—  (a) after the person has been charged with the 
offence or been officially informed that they may be prosecuted for it, 
or  (b) after the person has been sent for trial for the 
offence.  (9) In 
section 34(1) of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 (c. 33) 
(effect of accused’s failure to mention facts when questioned or charged: 
circumstances in which the section applies) after paragraph (b) insert— “; or 
 (c) at any time after being charged with the 
offence, on being questioned under section 22 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 
(post-charge questioning), failed to mention any such fact,”.  (10) Nothing in section 36 or 37 of that Act (effect 
of accused’s failure or refusal to account for certain matters) is to be read as 
excluding the operation of those sections in relation to a request made in the 
course of questioning under this section.  23 Post-charge 
questioning: Scotland  (1) The 
following provisions apply in Scotland.  (2) On 
the application of the prosecutor, a sheriff may authorise the questioning of a 
person about an offence—  (a) after the person has been charged with the 
offence, or  (b) after the person has appeared on petition in 
respect of the offence,  if the offence is a terrorism offence or it appears 
to the sheriff that the offence has a terrorist connection. (3) The 
sheriff—  (a) must specify the period during which questioning 
is authorised, and  (b) may 
impose such conditions as appear to be necessary in the interests of justice, 
which may include conditions as to the place where the questioning is to be 
carried out.  (4) The 
period during which questioning is authorised—  (a) begins when questioning pursuant to the 
authorisation begins and runs continuously from that time (whether or not 
questioning continues), and  (b) must not exceed 48 hours.  This is without prejudice to any application for a 
further authorisation under this section. (5) Where the person is in prison or otherwise 
lawfully detained, the sheriff may authorise the person’s removal to another 
place and detention there for the purpose of being questioned.  (6) A 
sheriff must not authorise the questioning of a person under this section unless 
satisfied—  (a) that further questioning of the person is 
necessary in the interests of justice,  (b) that the investigation for the purposes of which 
the further questioning is proposed is being conducted diligently and 
expeditiously, and  (c) that what is authorised will not interfere unduly 
with the preparation of the person’s defence to the charge in question or any 
other criminal charge.  (7) Evidence of any statement obtained from a person 
as a result of questioning under this section is not inadmissible solely because 
the questioning occurred after the person had been charged (or had appeared on 
petition).  (8) In 
this section “charged” means charged by the police.  24 Post-charge 
questioning: Northern Ireland  (1) The 
following provisions apply in Northern Ireland.  (2) A 
district judge (magistrates' courts) may authorise the questioning of a person 
about an offence—  (a) after the person has been charged with the 
offence or been officially informed that they may be prosecuted for it, 
or  (b) after the person has been committed for trial for 
the offence,  if the offence is a terrorism offence. (3) The 
judge—  (a) must specify the period during which questioning 
is authorised, and  (b) may 
impose such conditions as appear to the judge to be necessary in the interests 
of justice, which may include conditions as to the place where the questioning 
is to be carried out.  (4) The 
period during which questioning is authorised—  (a) begins when questioning pursuant to the 
authorisation begins and runs continuously from that time (whether or not 
questioning continues), and  (b) must not exceed 48 hours.  This is without prejudice to any application for a 
further authorisation under this section. (5) Where the person is in prison or otherwise 
lawfully detained, the judge may authorise the person’s removal to another place 
and detention there for the purpose of being questioned.  (6) A 
district judge (magistrates' courts) must not authorise the questioning of a 
person under this section unless satisfied—  (a) that further questioning of the person is 
necessary in the interests of justice,  (b) that the investigation for the purposes of which 
the further questioning is proposed is being conducted diligently and 
expeditiously, and  (c) that what is authorised will not interfere unduly 
with the preparation of the person’s defence to the charge in question or any 
other criminal charge.  (7) Codes of practice under Article 65 of the Police 
and Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (S.I. 1989/1341 (N.I. 12)) 
must make provision about the questioning of a person by a constable in 
accordance with this section.  (8) Nothing in this section prevents codes of 
practice under that Article making other provision for the questioning of a 
person by a constable about an offence—  (a) after the person has been charged with the 
offence or been officially informed that they may be prosecuted for it, 
or  (b) after the person has been committed for trial for 
the offence.  (9) In 
Article 3(1) of the Criminal Evidence (Northern Ireland) Order 1988 (S.I. 1988/1987 (N.I. 20)) 
(effect of accused’s failure to mention facts when questioned or charged: 
circumstances in which the article applies) after sub-paragraph (b) insert— 
“; 
or  (c) at any time after being charged with the 
offence, on being questioned under section 24 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 
(post-charge questioning), failed to mention any such fact,”.  (10) Nothing in Article 5 or 6 of that Order (effect 
of accused’s failure or refusal to account for certain matters) is to be read as 
excluding the operation of those Articles in relation to a request made in the 
course of questioning under this section.  25 Recording of 
interviews  (1) This section applies to any interview of a person 
by a constable under section 22, 23 or 24 (post-charge questioning).  (2) Any 
such interview must be video recorded, and the video recording must be with 
sound.  (3) The 
Secretary of State must issue a code of practice about the video recording of 
interviews to which this section applies.  (4) The 
interview and video recording must be conducted in accordance with that code of 
practice.  (5) A 
code of practice under this section—  (a) may 
make provision in relation to a particular part of the United Kingdom, 
and  (b) may 
make different provision for different parts of the United Kingdom.  26 Issue and 
revision of code of practice  (1) This section applies to the code of practice 
under section 25 (recording of interviews).  (2) The 
Secretary of State must—  (a) publish a draft of the proposed code, and 
 (b) consider any representations made about the 
draft,  and may modify the draft in the light of the 
representations made. (3) The 
Secretary of State must lay a draft of the code before Parliament.  (4) After laying the draft code before Parliament the 
Secretary of State may bring it into operation by order.  (5) The 
order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.  (6) The 
Secretary of State may revise a code and issue the revised code, and subsections 
(2) to (5) apply to a revised code as they apply to an original code. 
 (7) Failure to observe a provision of a code does not 
of itself render a constable liable to criminal or civil proceedings. 
 (8) A 
code—  (a) is 
admissible in evidence in criminal and civil proceedings, and  (b) shall be taken into account by a court or 
tribunal in any case in which it appears to the court or tribunal to be 
relevant.  27 Meaning of 
“terrorism offence”  (1) For 
the purposes of sections 22 to 24 (post-charge questioning) the following are 
terrorism offences—  (a) an 
offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 
11)—  
                            
                                sections 11 to 13 (offences relating to 
proscribed organisations),
                                sections 15 to 19, 21A and 21D 
(offences relating to terrorist property),
                                sections 38B and 39 (disclosure of and 
failure to disclose information about terrorism),
                                section 54 (weapons training),
                                sections 56 to 58A (directing 
terrorism, possessing things and collecting information for the purposes of 
terrorism),
                                sections 59 to 61 (inciting terrorism 
outside the United Kingdom),
                                paragraph 14 of Schedule 5 (order for 
explanation of material: false or misleading statements),
                                paragraph 1 of Schedule 6 (failure to 
provide customer information in connection with a terrorist investigation),
                                paragraph 18 of Schedule 7 (offences in 
connection with port and border controls); (b) an 
offence in respect of which there is jurisdiction by virtue of any of sections 
62 to 63D of that Act (extra-territorial jurisdiction in respect of certain 
offences committed outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of terrorism 
                        etc);  (c) an 
offence under section 113 of the Anti-Terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (use 
of noxious substances or things);  (d) an 
offence under any of the following provisions of Part 1 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 
11)—  
                            
                                sections 1 and 2 (encouragement of 
terrorism),
                                sections 5, 6 and 8 (preparation and 
training for terrorism),
                                sections 9, 10 and 11 (offences 
relating to radioactive devices and material and nuclear 
facilities); (e) an 
offence in respect of which there is jurisdiction by virtue of section 17 of 
that Act (extra-territorial jurisdiction in respect of certain offences 
committed outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of terrorism etc); 
 (f) an 
offence under paragraph 8 or 9 of Schedule 3 to the Justice and Security 
(Northern Ireland) Act 2007 (c. 6) (offences in connection with searches for munitions 
and transmitters in Northern Ireland).  (2) Any 
ancillary offence in relation to an offence listed in subsection (1) is a 
terrorism offence for the purposes of sections 22 to 24.  (3) The 
Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (1).  (4) Any 
such order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.  
                            Expand 
All Explanatory Notes (ENs) Part 3 
Prosecution and punishment of 
terrorist offences  Jurisdiction  28 Jurisdiction to try offences committed in the 
                                UK  (1) Where an offence to which this section applies is 
committed in the United Kingdom—  (a) proceedings for the offence may be taken at any 
place in the United Kingdom, and  (b) the 
offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at 
any such place.  (2) The 
section applies to—  (a) an 
offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 
11)—  
                                
                                    sections 11 to 13 (offences relating to 
proscribed organisations),
                                    sections 15 to 19, 21A and 21D 
(offences relating to terrorist property),
                                    sections 38B and 39 (disclosure of and 
failure to disclose information about terrorism),
                                    section 47 (offences relating to stop 
and search powers),
                                    section 51 (parking a vehicle in 
contravention of an authorisation or restriction),
                                    section 54 (weapons training),
                                    sections 56 to 58A (directing terrorism 
and possessing things or collecting information for the purposes of 
terrorism),
                                    section 116 (failure to stop a vehicle 
when required to do so),
                                    paragraph 1 of Schedule 6 (failure to 
provide customer information in connection with a terrorist investigation),
                                    paragraph 18 of Schedule 7 (offences in 
connection with port and border controls); (b) an 
offence under section 113 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (use 
of noxious substances or things to cause harm and intimidate);  (c) an 
offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 
11)—  
                                
                                    sections 1 and 2 (encouragement of 
terrorism),
                                    sections 5, 6 and 8 (preparation and 
training for terrorism),
                                    sections 9, 10 and 11 (offences 
relating to radioactive devices  etc). (3) The 
Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (2).  (4) Any 
such order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.  (5) The 
power conferred by subsection (3) may be exercised so as to add offences to 
subsection (2) only if it appears to the Secretary of State necessary to do so 
for the purpose of dealing with terrorism.  (6) In 
section 1 of the Justice and Security (Northern Ireland) Act 2007 (c. 6) (issue 
of certificate for trial without a jury), after subsection (6) insert— 
 “(6A) The Director of Public Prosecutions for 
Northern Ireland may not issue a certificate under subsection (2) if— 
 (a) the proceedings are taken in Northern 
Ireland only by virtue of section 28 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008, 
and  (b) it appears to the Director that the only 
condition that is met is condition 4.”. 
 Consent to 
prosecution  29 Consent 
to prosecution of offence committed outside UK  In section 117(2A) of the 
Terrorism Act 2000 
(c. 11) and in section 19(2) of the Terrorism Act 2006 (cases in which 
permission of Attorney General or Advocate General for Northern Ireland required 
before  DPP gives 
consent to prosecution), after “committed” insert “outside the United Kingdom 
or”. Sentencing  30 Sentences for offences with a terrorist 
connection: England and Wales  (1) This section applies where a court in England and 
Wales is considering for the purposes of sentence the seriousness of an offence 
specified in Schedule 2 (offences where terrorist connection to be 
considered).  (2) If 
having regard to the material before it for the purposes of sentencing it 
appears to the court that the offence has or may have a terrorist connection, 
the court must determine whether that is the case.  (3) For 
that purpose the court may hear evidence, and must take account of any 
representations made by the prosecution and the defence, as in the case of any 
other matter relevant for the purposes of sentence.  (4) If 
the court determines that the offence has a terrorist connection, the 
court—  (a) must treat that fact as an aggravating factor, 
and  (b) must state in open court that the offence was so 
aggravated.  (5) In 
this section “sentence”, in relation to an offence, includes any order made by a 
court when dealing with a person in respect of the offence.  (6) This section has effect in relation only to 
offences committed on or after the day it comes into force.  31 Sentences 
for offences with a terrorist connection: Scotland  (1) This section applies where in Scotland, in 
relation to an offence specified in Schedule 2 (offences where terrorist 
connection to be considered)—  (a) it 
is libelled in an indictment, and  (b) proved,  that the offence has been aggravated by reason of 
having a terrorist connection. (2) Where this section applies, the court must take 
the aggravation into account in determining the appropriate sentence. 
 (3) Where the sentence imposed by the court in 
respect of the offence is different from that which the court would have imposed 
if the offence had not been aggravated by reason of having a terrorist 
connection, the court must state the extent of, and the reasons for, the 
difference.  (4) For 
the purposes of this section, evidence from a single source is sufficient to 
prove that an offence has been aggravated by reason of having a terrorist 
connection.  (5) This section has effect in relation only to 
offences committed on or after the day it comes into force.  32 Sentences 
for offences with a terrorist connection: armed forces  (1) This section applies where a service court is 
considering for the purposes of sentence the seriousness of a service offence as 
respects which the corresponding civil offence is an offence specified in 
Schedule 2.  (2) If 
having regard to the material before it for the purposes of sentencing it 
appears to the court that the offence has or may have a terrorist connection, 
the court must determine whether that is the case.  (3) For 
that purpose the court may hear evidence, and must take account of any 
representations made by the prosecution and the defence, as in the case of any 
other matter relevant for the purposes of sentence.  (4) If 
the court determines that the offence has a terrorist connection, the 
court—  (a) must treat that fact as an aggravating factor, 
and  (b) must state in open court that the offence was so 
aggravated.  (5) This section has effect in relation only to 
offences committed on or after the day it comes into force.  33 Power to 
amend list of offences where terrorist connection to be considered 
                            (1) The 
Secretary of State may by order amend Schedule 2 (offences where terrorist 
connection to be considered).  (2) Any 
such order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.  (3) An 
order adding an offence to that Schedule applies only in relation to offences 
committed after the order comes into force.  Forfeiture  34 Forfeiture: terrorist property 
offences  For section 23 of the 
Terrorism Act 2000 
(c. 11) (forfeiture) substitute— “Forfeiture  23 Forfeiture: terrorist property 
offences  (1) The court by or before which a person is 
convicted of an offence under any of sections 15 to 18 may make a forfeiture 
order in accordance with the provisions of this section.  (2) Where a person is convicted of an offence 
under section 15(1) or (2) or 16, the court may order the forfeiture of any 
money or other property which, at the time of the offence, the person had in 
their possession or under their control and which—  (a) had been used for the purposes of 
terrorism, or  (b) they intended should be used, or had 
reasonable cause to suspect might be used, for those purposes.  (3) Where a person is convicted of an offence 
under section 15(3) the court may order the forfeiture of any money or other 
property which, at the time of the offence, the person had in their possession 
or under their control and which—  (a) had been used for the purposes of 
terrorism, or  (b) which, at that time, they knew or had 
reasonable cause to suspect would or might be used for those purposes. 
 (4) Where a person is convicted of an offence 
under section 17 or 18 the court may order the forfeiture of any money or other 
property which, at the time of the offence, the person had in their possession 
or under their control and which—  (a) had been used for the purposes of 
terrorism, or  (b) was, at that time, intended by them to be 
used for those purposes.  (5) Where a person is convicted of an offence 
under section 17 the court may order the forfeiture of the money or other 
property to which the arrangement in question related, and which—  (a) had been used for the purposes of 
terrorism, or  (b) at the time of the offence, the person 
knew or had reasonable cause to suspect would or might be used for those 
purposes.  (6) Where a person is convicted of an offence 
under section 18 the court may order the forfeiture of the money or other 
property to which the arrangement in question related.  (7) Where a person is convicted of an offence 
under any of sections 15 to 18, the court may order the forfeiture of any money 
or other property which wholly or partly, and directly or indirectly, is 
received by any person as a payment or other reward in connection with the 
commission of the offence.”.  35 Forfeiture: 
other terrorism offences and offences with a terrorist connection  (1) After section 23 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) 
(forfeiture: terrorist property offences) insert—  “23A Forfeiture: other terrorism offences 
and offences with a terrorist connection  (1) The court by or before which a person is 
convicted of an offence to which this section applies may order the forfeiture 
of any money or other property in relation to which the following conditions are 
met—  (a) that it was, at the time of the offence, 
in the possession or control of the person convicted; and  (b) that—  (i) it had been used for the purposes of 
terrorism,  (ii) it was intended by that person that it 
should be used for the purposes of terrorism, or  (iii) the court believes that it will be used 
for the purposes of terrorism unless forfeited.  (2) This section applies to an offence 
under—  (a) any of the following provisions of this 
Act—  
                                
                                    section 54 (weapons 
training);
                                    section 57, 58 or 58A 
(possessing things and collecting information for the purposes of 
terrorism);
                                    section 59, 60 or 61 (inciting 
terrorism outside the United Kingdom); (b) any of the following provisions of Part 1 
of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11)—  
                                
                                    section 2 (dissemination of 
terrorist publications);
                                    section 5 (preparation of 
terrorist acts);
                                    section 6 (training for 
terrorism);
                                    sections 9 to 11 (offences 
involving radioactive devices or materials). (3) This section applies to any ancillary 
offence (as defined in section 94 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008) in relation 
to an offence listed in subsection (2).  (4) This section also applies to an offence 
specified in Schedule 2 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (offences where 
terrorist connection to be considered) as to which—  (a) in England and Wales, the court dealing 
with the offence has determined, in accordance with section 30 of that Act, that 
the offence has a terrorist connection;  (b) in Scotland, it has been proved, in 
accordance with section 31 of that Act, that the offence has a terrorist 
connection.  (5) The Secretary of State may by order amend 
subsection (2).  (6) An order adding an offence to subsection 
(2) applies only in relation to offences committed after the order comes into 
force.”.  (2) In 
section 123 of that Act (orders and regulations)—  (a) in 
subsection (4) (instruments subject to affirmative resolution procedure), after 
paragraph (a) insert—  “(aa) section 23A(5);”;  (b) in 
subsection (5), for “paragraph (b)” substitute “paragraph (aa) or (b)”. 
 36 Forfeiture: 
supplementary provisions  After section 23A of the 
Terrorism Act 2000 
(c. 11) (inserted by section 35 above), insert— “23B Forfeiture: supplementary 
provisions  (1) Before making an order under section 23 or 
23A, a court must give an opportunity to be heard to any person, other than the 
convicted person, who claims to be the owner or otherwise interested in anything 
which can be forfeited under that section.  (2) In considering whether to make an order 
under section 23 or 23A in respect of any property, a court shall have regard 
to—  (a) the value of the property, and  (b) the likely financial and other effects on 
the convicted person of the making of the order (taken together with any other 
order that the court contemplates making).  (3) A court in Scotland must not make an order 
under section 23 or 23A except on the application of the prosecutor—  (a) in proceedings on indictment, when the 
prosecutor moves for sentence, and  (b) in summary proceedings, before the court 
sentences the accused;  and for the purposes of any appeal or review, 
an order under either of those sections made by a court in Scotland is a 
sentence. (4) Schedule 4 makes further provision in 
relation to forfeiture orders under section 23 or 23A.”.  37 Forfeiture: 
application of proceeds to compensate victims  (1) In 
Part 1 of Schedule 4 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) 
(forfeiture orders: England and Wales), after paragraph 4 insert—  “Application of proceeds to compensate victims4A (1) Where a court makes a forfeiture order in 
a case where—  (a) the offender has been convicted of an 
offence that has resulted in a person suffering personal injury, loss or damage, 
or  (b) any such offence is taken into 
consideration by the court in determining sentence,  the court may also order that an amount not 
exceeding a sum specified by the court is to be paid to that person out of the 
proceeds of the forfeiture. (2) For this purpose the proceeds of the 
forfeiture means the aggregate amount of—  (a) any forfeited money, and  (b) the proceeds of the sale, disposal or 
realisation of any forfeited property, after deduction of the costs of the sale, 
disposal or realisation,  reduced by the amount of any payment under 
paragraph 2(1)(d) or 3(1). (3) The court may make an order under this 
paragraph only if it is satisfied that but for the inadequacy of the offender’s 
means it would have made a compensation order under section 130 of the Powers of 
Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 under which the offender would have been 
required to pay compensation of an amount not less than the specified 
amount.”.  (2) In 
Part 2 of that Schedule (forfeiture orders: Scotland), after paragraph 17 
insert—  “Application of proceeds to compensate victims17A (1) Where a court makes a forfeiture order in 
a case where—  (a) the offender has been convicted of an 
offence that has resulted in a person suffering personal injury, loss or damage, 
or  (b) any such offence is taken into 
consideration by the court in determining sentence,  the court may also order that an amount not 
exceeding a sum specified by the court is to be paid to that person out of the 
proceeds of the forfeiture. (2) For this purpose the proceeds of the 
forfeiture means the aggregate amount of—  (a) any forfeited money, and  (b) the proceeds of the sale, disposal or 
realisation of any forfeited property, after deduction of the costs of the sale, 
disposal or realisation,  reduced by the amount of any payment under 
paragraph 16(1)(c) or 17(2). (3) The court may make an order under this 
paragraph only if it is satisfied that but for the inadequacy of the offender’s 
means it would have made a compensation order under section 249 of the Criminal 
Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 under which the offender would have been required 
to pay compensation of an amount not less than the specified amount.”.  (3) In 
Part 3 of that Schedule (forfeiture orders: Northern Ireland), after paragraph 
32 insert—  “Application of proceeds to compensate victims32A (1) Where a court makes a forfeiture order in 
a case where—  (a) the offender has been convicted of an 
offence that has resulted in a person suffering personal injury, loss or damage, 
or  (b) any such offence is taken into 
consideration by the court in determining sentence,  the court may also order that an amount not 
exceeding a sum specified by the court is to be paid to that person out of the 
proceeds of the forfeiture. (2) For this purpose the proceeds of the 
forfeiture means the aggregate amount of—  (a) any forfeited money, and  (b) the proceeds of the sale, disposal or 
realisation of any forfeited property, after deduction of the costs of the sale, 
disposal or realisation,  reduced by the amount of any payment under 
paragraph 30(1)(d) or 31(1). (3) The court may make an order under this 
paragraph only if it is satisfied that but for the inadequacy of the offender’s 
means it would have made a compensation order under Article 14 of the Criminal 
Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 1994 under which the offender would have been 
required to pay compensation of an amount not less than the specified 
amount.”.  38 Forfeiture: 
other amendments  (1) For 
section 120A of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) 
(supplemental powers of the court in respect of forfeiture orders) 
substitute—  “120A Supplementary powers of 
forfeiture  (1) A court by or before which a person is 
convicted of an offence under a provision mentioned in column 1 of the following 
table may order the forfeiture of any item mentioned in column 2 in relation to 
that offence.  
                                
                                    
                                        
                                        
                                            | Offence | Items liable to 
forfeiture |  
                                            | Section 54 (weapons training) | Anything that the court considers to 
have been in the possession of the person for purposes connected with the 
offence. |  
                                            | Section 57 (possession for terrorist 
purposes) | Any article that is the subject 
matter of the offence. |  
                                            | Section 58 (collection of 
information) | Any document or record containing 
information of the kind mentioned in subsection (1)(a) of that 
section. |  
                                            | Section 58A (eliciting, publishing 
or communicating information about members of armed forces etc) | Any document or record containing 
information of the kind mentioned in subsection (1)(a) of that 
section. |  (2) Before making an order under this section, 
a court must give an opportunity to be heard to any person, other than the 
convicted person, who claims to be the owner or otherwise interested in anything 
which can be forfeited under this section.  (3) An order under this section does not come 
into force until there is no further possibility of it being varied, or set 
aside, on appeal (disregarding any power of a court to grant leave to appeal out 
of time).  (4) Where a court makes an order under this 
section, it may also make such other provision as appears to it to be necessary 
for giving effect to the forfeiture, including, in particular, provision 
relating to the retention, handling, disposal or destruction of what is 
forfeited.  (5) Provision made by virtue of subsection (4) 
may be varied at any time by the court that made it.  (6) The power of forfeiture under this section 
is in addition to any power of forfeiture under section 23A.”.  (2) In 
section 7 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 11), after subsection (6) insert—  “(7) 
The power of forfeiture under this 
section is in addition to any power of forfeiture under section 23A of the 
Terrorism Act 2000.”.  (3) After section 11 of the Terrorism Act 2006 
(terrorist threats relating to devices, materials or facilities) insert— 
 “11A Forfeiture of devices, materials or 
facilities  (1) A court by or before which a person is 
convicted of an offence under section 9 or 10 may order the forfeiture of any 
radioactive device or radioactive material, or any nuclear facility, made or 
used in committing the offence.  (2) A court by or before which a person is 
convicted of an offence under section 11 may order the forfeiture of any 
radioactive device or radioactive material, or any nuclear facility, which is 
the subject of—  (a) a demand under subsection (1) of that 
section, or  (b) a threat falling within subsection (3) of 
that section.  (3) Before making an order under this section, 
a court must give an opportunity to be heard to any person, other than the 
convicted person, who claims to be the owner or otherwise interested in anything 
which can be forfeited under this section.  (4) An order under this section does not come 
into force until there is no further possibility of it being varied, or set 
aside, on appeal (disregarding any power of a court to grant leave to appeal out 
of time).  (5) Where a court makes an order under this 
section, it may also make such other provision as appears to it to be necessary 
for giving effect to the forfeiture, including, in particular, provision 
relating to the retention, handling, disposal or destruction of what is 
forfeited.  (6) Provision made by virtue of subsection (5) 
may be varied at any time by the court that made it.  (7) The power of forfeiture under this section 
is in addition to any power of forfeiture under section 23A of the Terrorism Act 
2000.”.  39 Forfeiture: 
consequential amendments  Schedule 3 contains amendments 
consequential on those made by sections 34 to 38. Part 4 
Notification requirements 
                        Introductory  40 Scheme 
of this Part  (1) This Part imposes notification requirements on 
persons dealt with in respect of certain offences—  (a) sections 41 to 43 specify the offences to which 
this Part applies;  (b) sections 44 to 46 make provision as to the 
sentences or orders triggering the notification requirements;  (c) sections 47 to 52 contain the notification 
requirements; and  (d) section 53 makes provision as to the period for 
which the requirements apply.  (2) This Part also provides for—  (a) orders applying the notification requirements to 
persons dealt with outside the United Kingdom for corresponding foreign offences 
(see section 57 and Schedule 4); and  (b) orders imposing restrictions on travel outside 
the United Kingdom on persons subject to the notification requirements (see 
section 58 and Schedule 5).  (3) Schedule 6 provides for the application of this 
Part to service offences and related matters.  Offences 
to which this Part applies  41 Offences to which this Part applies: 
terrorism offences  (1) This Part applies to—  (a) an 
offence under any of the following provisions of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 
11)—  
                            
                                section 11 or 12 (offences relating to 
proscribed organisations),
                                sections 15 to 18 (offences relating to 
terrorist property),
                                section 38B (failure to disclose 
information about acts of terrorism),
                                section 54 (weapons training),
                                sections 56 to 61 (directing terrorism, 
possessing things and collecting information for the purposes of terrorism and 
inciting terrorism outside the United Kingdom); (b) an 
offence in respect of which there is jurisdiction by virtue of any of sections 
62 to 63D of that Act (extra-territorial jurisdiction in respect of certain 
offences committed outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of terrorism 
                        etc);  (c) an 
offence under section 113 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) (use 
of noxious substances or things);  (d) an 
offence under any of the following provisions of Part 1 of the Terrorism Act 2006 (c. 
11)—  
                            
                                sections 1 and 2 (encouragement of 
terrorism),
                                sections 5, 6 and 8 (preparation and 
training for terrorism),
                                sections 9, 10 and 11 (offences 
relating to radioactive devices and material and nuclear 
facilities); (e) an 
offence in respect of which there is jurisdiction by virtue of section 17 of 
that Act (extra-territorial jurisdiction in respect of certain offences 
committed outside the United Kingdom for the purposes of terrorism etc). 
 (2) This Part also applies to any ancillary offence 
in relation to an offence listed in subsection (1).  (3) The 
Secretary of State may by order amend subsection (1).  (4) Any 
such order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.  (5) An 
order adding an offence applies only in relation to offences dealt with after 
the order comes into force.  (6) An 
order removing an offence has effect in relation to offences whenever dealt 
with, whether before or after the order comes into force.  (7) Where an offence is removed from the list, a 
person subject to the notification requirements by reason of that offence being 
listed (and who is not otherwise subject to those requirements) ceases to be 
subject to them when the order comes into force.  42 Offences to 
which this Part applies: offences having a terrorist connection  (1) This Part applies to—  (a) an 
offence as to which a court has determined under section 30 (sentences for 
offences with a terrorist connection: England and Wales) that the offence has a 
terrorist connection, and  (b) an 
offence in relation to which section 31 applies (sentences for offences with 
terrorist connection: Scotland).  (2) A 
person to whom the notification requirements apply by virtue of such a 
determination as is mentioned in subsection (1)(a) may appeal against it to the 
same court, and subject to the same conditions, as an appeal against 
sentence.  (3) If 
the determination is set aside on appeal, the notification requirements are 
treated as never having applied to that person in respect of the offence. 
 (4) Where an order is made under section 33 removing 
an offence from the list in Schedule 2, a person subject to the notification 
requirements by reason of that offence being so listed (and who is not otherwise 
subject to those requirements) ceases to be subject to them when the order comes 
into force.  43 Offences 
dealt with before commencement  (1) This Part applies to a person dealt with for an 
offence before the commencement of this Part only if—  (a) the 
offence is on the commencement of this Part within section 41(1) or (2) 
(offences to which this Part applies: terrorism offences), and  (b) immediately before the commencement of this Part 
the person—  (i) is 
imprisoned or detained in pursuance of the sentence passed or order made in 
respect of the offence,  (ii) would be so imprisoned or detained but for being 
unlawfully at large, absent without leave, on temporary leave or leave of 
absence, or on bail pending an appeal, or  (iii) is on licence, having served the custodial part 
of a sentence of imprisonment in respect of the offence.  (2) In 
relation to a person dealt with for an offence before the commencement of this 
Part—  (a) any 
reference in this Part to a sentence or order under a specified statutory 
provision includes a sentence or order under any corresponding earlier statutory 
provision;  (b) any 
reference in this Part to a person being or having been found to be under a 
disability and to have done the act charged against them in respect of an 
offence includes a reference to their being or having been found—  (i) unfit to be tried for the offence,  (ii) insane so that their trial for the offence cannot 
or could not proceed, or  (iii) unfit to be tried and to have done the act 
charged against them in respect of the offence.  Persons to 
whom the notification requirements apply  44 Persons 
to whom the notification requirements apply  The notification requirements 
apply to a person who— (a) is 
aged 16 or over at the time of being dealt with for an offence to which this 
Part applies, and  (b) is 
made subject in respect of the offence to a sentence or order within section 45 
(sentences or orders triggering notification requirements).  45 Sentences or 
orders triggering notification requirements  (1) The 
notification requirements apply to a person who in England and Wales— 
 (a) has 
been convicted of an offence to which this Part applies and sentenced in respect 
of the offence to—  (i) imprisonment or custody for life,  (ii) imprisonment or detention in a young offender 
institution for a term of 12 months or more,  (iii) imprisonment or detention in a young offender 
institution for public protection under section 225 of the Criminal Justice Act 
2003 (c. 
44),  (iv) detention for life or for a period of 12 months 
or more under section 91 of the Powers of Criminal Courts (Sentencing) Act 2000 (c. 6) 
(offenders under 18 convicted of certain serious offences),  (v) a 
detention and training order for a term of 12 months or more under section 100 
of that Act (offenders under age of 18),  (vi) detention for public protection under section 226 
of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (serious offences committed by persons under 
18), or  (vii) detention during Her Majesty’s pleasure; 
or  (b) has 
been—  (i) convicted of an offence to which this Part 
applies carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more, 
 (ii) found not guilty by reason of insanity of such an 
offence, or  (iii) found to be under a disability and to have done 
the act charged against them in respect of such an offence,  and made subject in respect of the offence to a 
hospital order. (2) The 
notification requirements apply to a person who in Scotland—  (a) has 
been convicted of an offence to which this Part applies and sentenced in respect 
of the offence to—  (i) imprisonment or detention in a young offenders 
institution for life,  (ii) imprisonment or detention in a young offenders 
institution for a term of 12 months or more,  (iii) an order for lifelong restriction under section 
210F of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 
46),  (iv) detention without limit of time under section 
205(2) of that Act (punishment for murder for offenders under 18), or 
 (v) detention for a period of 12 months or more under 
section 208 of that Act (detention of children convicted on indictment); 
or  (b) has 
been—  (i) convicted of an offence to which this Part 
applies carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more, 
 (ii) acquitted of such an offence on grounds of 
insanity at the time of the act or omission constituting the offence, or 
 (iii) found, following an examination of facts under 
section 55 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (insanity in bar of 
trial: examination of facts) in relation to such an offence, to have done the 
act or omission constituting the offence,  and made subject in respect of the offence to a 
hospital order. (3) The 
notification requirements apply to a person who in Northern Ireland—  (a) has 
been convicted of an offence to which this Part applies and sentenced in respect 
of the offence to—  (i) imprisonment for life,  (ii) imprisonment or detention in a young offenders 
centre for a term of 12 months or more,  (iii) an indeterminate custodial sentence under Article 
13 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 (S.I. 2008/1216 (N.I. 1)),  (iv) an 
extended custodial sentence under Article 14(5) of that Order (offenders under 
21 convicted of certain offences),  (v) a 
juvenile justice centre order under Article 39 of the Criminal Justice 
(Children) (Northern Ireland) Order 1998 (S.I. 1998/1504 (N.I. 9)) for a period 
of 12 months or more,  (vi) detention during the pleasure of the Secretary of 
State under Article 45(1) of that Order (punishment of certain grave crimes 
committed by a child), or  (vii) detention under Article 45(2) of that Order for a 
period of 12 months or more (other serious offences committed by a child); 
or  (b) has 
been—  (i) convicted of an offence to which this Part 
applies carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more, 
 (ii) found not guilty by reason of insanity of such an 
offence, or  (iii) found to be unfit to be tried and to have done 
the act charged against them in respect of such an offence,  and made subject in respect of the offence to a 
hospital order. (4) The 
references in this section to an offence carrying a maximum term of imprisonment 
of 12 months or more—  (a) are 
to an offence carrying such a maximum term in the case of a person who has 
attained the age of 21 (18 in relation to England and Wales), and  (b) include an offence carrying in the case of such a 
person a maximum term of life imprisonment and an offence for which in the case 
of such a person the sentence is fixed by law as life imprisonment.  (5) In 
relation to any time before the coming into force of section 61 of the Criminal 
Justice and Court Services Act 2000 (c. 43) subsection (4)(a) above has effect with the omission 
of the words “(18 in relation to England and Wales)”.  46 Power to 
amend specified terms or periods of imprisonment or detention  (1) The 
Secretary of State may by order amend the provisions of section 45 referring to 
a specified term or period of imprisonment or detention.  (2) An 
order reducing a specified term or period has effect only in relation to persons 
dealt with after the order comes into force.  (3) Where an order increases a specified term or 
period—  (a) it 
has effect in relation to persons dealt with at any time, whether before or 
after the order comes into force, and  (b) a 
person who would not have been subject to the notification requirements if the 
order had been in force when the offence was dealt with (and who is not 
otherwise subject to those requirements) ceases to be subject to the 
requirements when the order comes into force.  (4) An 
order under this section is subject to affirmative resolution procedure. 
 Notification requirements  47 Initial 
notification  (1) A 
person to whom the notification requirements apply must notify the following 
information to the police within the period of three days beginning with the day 
on which the person is dealt with in respect of the offence in question. 
 (2) The 
information required is—  (a) date of birth;  (b) national insurance number;  (c) name on the date on which the person was dealt 
with in respect of the offence (where the person used one or more other names on 
that date, each of those names);  (d) home address on that date;  (e) name on the date on which notification is made 
(where the person uses one or more other names on that date, each of those 
names);  (f) home address on the date on which notification is 
made;  (g) address of any other premises in the United 
Kingdom at which, at the time the notification is made, the person regularly 
resides or stays;  (h) any 
prescribed information.  (3) In 
subsection (2) “prescribed” means prescribed by regulations made by the 
Secretary of State.  Such regulations are subject to affirmative 
resolution procedure. (4) In 
determining the period within which notification is to be made under this 
section, there shall be disregarded any time when the person is—  (a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order 
of a court,  (b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or 
detention,  (c) detained in a hospital, or  (d) detained under the Immigration Acts.  (5) This section does not apply to a person 
who—  (a) is 
subject to the notification requirements in respect of another offence (and does 
not cease to be so subject before the end of the period within which 
notification is to be made), and  (b) has 
complied with this section in respect of that offence.  (6) In 
the application of this section to a person dealt with for an offence before the 
commencement of this Part who, immediately before commencement—  (a) would be imprisoned or detained in respect of the 
offence but for being unlawfully at large, absent without leave, on temporary 
leave or leave of absence, or on bail pending an appeal, or  (b) is 
on licence, having served the custodial part of a sentence of imprisonment in 
respect of the offence,  the reference in subsection (1) to the day on which 
the person is dealt with in respect of the offence shall be read as a reference 
to the commencement of this Part. 48 Notification 
of changes  (1) A 
person to whom the notification requirements apply who uses a name that has not 
previously been notified to the police must notify the police of that 
name.  (2) If 
there is a change of the home address of a person to whom the notification 
requirements apply, the person must notify the police of the new home 
address.  (3) A 
person to whom the notification requirements apply who resides or stays at 
premises in the United Kingdom the address of which has previously not been 
notified to the police—  (a) for 
a period of 7 days, or  (b) for 
two or more periods, in any period of 12 months, that taken together amount to 7 
days,  must notify the police of the address of those 
premises. (4) A 
person to whom the notification requirements apply who is released—  (a) from custody pursuant to an order of a 
court,  (b) from imprisonment or detention pursuant to a 
sentence of a court,  (c) from detention in a hospital, or  (d) from detention under the Immigration Acts, 
 must notify the police of that fact. This does not apply if the person is at the same 
time required to notify the police under section 47 (initial notification). (5) A 
person who is required to notify information within section 47(2)(h) (prescribed 
information) must notify the police of the prescribed details of any prescribed 
changes in that information.  (6) In 
subsection (5) “prescribed” means prescribed by regulations made by the 
Secretary of State.  Such regulations are subject to affirmative 
resolution procedure. (7) Notification under this section must be made 
before the end of the period of three days beginning with the day on which the 
event in question occurs.  Where subsection (3) applies that is the day with 
which the period referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) (as the case may be) 
ends. (8) In 
determining the period within which notification is to be made under this 
section, there shall be disregarded any time when the person is—  (a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order 
of a court,  (b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or 
detention,  (c) detained in a hospital, or  (d) detained under the Immigration Acts.  (9) References in this section to previous 
notification are to previous notification by the person under section 47 
(initial notification), this section, section 49 (periodic re-notification) or 
section 56 (notification on return after absence from  UK).  (10) Notification under this section must be 
accompanied by re-notification of the other information mentioned in section 
47(2).  49 Periodic 
re-notification  (1) A 
person to whom the notification requirements apply must, within the period of 
one year after last notifying the police in accordance with—  (a) section 47 (initial notification),  (b) section 48 (notification of change),  (c) this section, or  (d) section 56 (notification on return after absence 
from UK),  re-notify to the police the information mentioned in 
section 47(2). (2) Subsection (1) does not apply if the period 
referred to in that subsection ends at a time when the person is—  (a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order 
of a court,  (b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or 
detention,  (c) detained in a hospital, or  (d) detained under the Immigration Acts.  (3) In 
that case section 48(4) and (10) (duty to notify of release and to re-notify 
other information) apply when the person is released.  50 Method of 
notification and related matters  (1) This section applies to notification 
under—  (a) section 47 (initial notification),  (b) section 48 (notification of change),  (c) section 49 (periodic re-notification), or 
 (d) section 56 (notification on return after absence 
from UK).  (2) Notification must be made by the person— 
 (a) attending at a police station in the person’s 
local police area, and  (b) making an oral notification to a police officer 
or to a person authorised for the purpose by the officer in charge of the 
station.  (3) A 
person making a notification under section 48 (notification of change) in 
relation to premises referred to in subsection (3) of that section may make the 
notification at a police station that would fall within subsection (2)(a) above 
if the address of those premises were the person’s home address.  (4) The 
notification must be acknowledged.  (5) The 
acknowledgement must be in writing, and in such form as the Secretary of State 
may direct.  (6) The 
person making the notification must, if requested to do so by the police officer 
or person to whom the notification is made, allow the officer or person 
to—  (a) take the person’s fingerprints,  (b) photograph any part of the person, or  (c) do 
both these things,  for the purpose of verifying the person’s 
identity. (7) In 
the application of this section to Scotland, references to a police officer are 
to be read as references to a constable.  51 Meaning of 
“local police area”  (1) For 
the purposes of section 50(2) (method of notification) a person’s “local police 
area” means—  (a) the 
police area in which the person’s home address is situated;  (b) in 
the absence of a home address, the police area in which the home address last 
notified is situated;  (c) in 
the absence of a home address and of any such notification, the police area in 
which the court of trial was situated.  (2) In 
subsection (1)(c) “the court of trial” means—  (a) the 
court by or before which the conviction or finding was made by virtue of which 
the notification requirements apply to the person, or  (b) if 
that conviction or finding was one substituted on an appeal or reference, the 
court by or before which the proceedings were taken from which the appeal or 
reference was brought.  (3) This section and section 50(2) apply in relation 
to Northern Ireland as if Northern Ireland were a police area.  52 Travel 
outside the United Kingdom  (1) The 
Secretary of State may by regulations make provision requiring a person to whom 
the notification requirements apply who leaves the United Kingdom—  (a) to 
notify the police of their departure before they leave, and  (b) to 
notify the police of their return if they subsequently return to the United 
Kingdom.  (2) Notification of departure must disclose— 
 (a) the 
date on which the person intends to leave the United Kingdom;  (b) the 
country (or, if there is more than one, the first country) to which the person 
will travel;  (c) the 
person’s point of arrival (determined in accordance with the regulations) in 
that country;  (d) any 
other information required by the regulations.  (3) Notification of return must disclose such 
information as is required by the regulations about the person’s return to the 
United Kingdom.  (4) Notification under this section must be given in 
accordance with the regulations.  (5) Regulations under this section are subject to 
affirmative resolution procedure.  Period for 
which notification requirements apply  53 Period 
for which notification requirements apply  (1) The 
period for which the notification requirements apply is—  (a) 30 
years in the case of a person who—  (i) is 
aged 18 or over at the time of conviction for the offence, and  (ii) receives in respect of the offence a sentence 
within subsection (2);  (b) 15 
years in the case of a person who—  (i) is 
aged 18 or over at the time of conviction for the offence, and  (ii) receives in respect of the offence a sentence 
within subsection (3);  (c) 10 
years in any other case.  (2) The 
sentences in respect of which a 30 year period applies are—  (a) in 
England and Wales—  (i) imprisonment or custody for life,  (ii) imprisonment or detention in a young offender 
institution for a term of 10 years or more,  (iii) imprisonment or detention in a young offender 
institution for public protection under section 225 of the Criminal Justice Act 
2003 (c. 
44),  (iv) detention during Her Majesty’s pleasure; 
 (b) in 
Scotland—  (i) imprisonment or detention in a young offenders 
institution for life,  (ii) imprisonment or detention in a young offenders 
institution for a term of 10 years or more,  (iii) an order for lifelong restriction under section 
210F of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 
46);  (c) in 
Northern Ireland—  (i) imprisonment for life,  (ii) imprisonment for a term of 10 years or 
more,  (iii) an indeterminate custodial sentence under Article 
13 of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 (S.I. 2008/1216 (N.I. 
1)),  (iv) an 
extended custodial sentence for a term of 10 years or more under Article 14(5) 
of that Order (offenders under 21 convicted of certain offences),  (v) detention during the pleasure of the Secretary of 
State under Article 45(1) of the Criminal Justice (Children) (Northern Ireland) 
Order 1998 (S.I. 1998/1504 (N.I. 9)).  (3) The 
sentences in respect of which a 15 year period applies are—  (a) in 
England and Wales, imprisonment or detention in a young offender institution for 
a term of 5 years or more but less than 10 years;  (b) in 
Scotland, imprisonment or detention in a young offenders institution for a term 
of 5 years or more but less than 10 years;  (c) in 
Northern Ireland—  (i) imprisonment for a term of 5 years or more but 
less than 10 years,  (ii) an 
extended custodial sentence for a term of 5 years or more but less than 10 years 
under Article 14(5) of the Criminal Justice (Northern Ireland) Order 2008 (S.I. 
2008/1216 (N.I. 1)) (offenders under 21 convicted of certain offences). 
 (4) The 
period begins with the day on which the person is dealt with for the 
offence.  (5) If 
a person who is the subject of a finding within section 45(1)(b)(iii), 
(2)(b)(iii) or (3)(b)(iii) (finding of disability, etc) is subsequently tried 
for the offence, the period resulting from that finding ends—  (a) if 
the person is acquitted, at the conclusion of the trial;  (b) if 
the person is convicted, when the person is again dealt with in respect of the 
offence.  (6) For 
the purposes of determining the length of the period—  (a) a 
person who has been sentenced in respect of two or more offences to which this 
Part applies to consecutive terms of imprisonment is treated as if sentenced, in 
respect of each of the offences, to a term of imprisonment equal to the 
aggregate of the terms; and  (b) a 
person who has been sentenced in respect of two or more such offences to 
concurrent terms of imprisonment (X and Y) that overlap for a period (Z) is 
treated as if sentenced, in respect of each of the offences, to a term of 
imprisonment equal to X plus Y minus Z.  (7) In 
determining whether the period has expired, there shall be disregarded any 
period when the person was—  (a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order 
of a court,  (b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or 
detention,  (c) detained in a hospital, or  (d) detained under the Immigration Acts.  Offences 
in relation to notification  54 Offences relating to notification 
                        (1) A 
person commits an offence who—  (a) fails without reasonable excuse to comply 
with—  
                            
                                section 47 (initial notification),
                                section 48 (notification of 
changes),
                                section 49 (periodic 
re-notification),
                                section 50(6) (taking of fingerprints 
or photographs),
                                any regulations made under section 
52(1) (travel outside United Kingdom), or
                                section 56 (notification on return 
after absence from  UK); 
or (b) notifies to the police in purported compliance 
with—  
                            
                                section 47 (initial notification),
                                section 48 (notification of 
changes),
                                section 49 (periodic 
re-notification),
                                any regulations made under section 
52(1) (travel outside United Kingdom), or
                                section 56 (notification on return 
after absence from UK), any information that the person knows to be 
false. (2) A 
person guilty of an offence under this section is liable—  (a) on 
summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine 
not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;  (b) on 
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or a 
fine or both.  (3) In 
the application of subsection (2)(a)—  (a) in 
England and Wales, in relation to an offence committed before the commencement 
of section 154(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (c. 44), 
or  (b) in 
Northern Ireland,  for “12 months” substitute “6 months”. (4) A 
person—  (a) commits an offence under subsection (1)(a) above 
on the day on which the person first fails without reasonable excuse to comply 
with—  
                            
                                section 47 (initial notification),
                                section 48 (notification of 
changes),
                                section 49 (periodic 
re-notification),
                                any regulations made under section 
52(1) (travel outside United Kingdom), or
                                section 56 (notification on return 
after absence from UK), and (b) continues to commit it throughout any period 
during which the failure continues.  But a person must not be prosecuted under subsection 
(1) more than once in respect of the same failure. (5) Proceedings for an offence under this section may 
be commenced in any court having jurisdiction in any place where the person 
charged with the offence resides or is found.  55 Effect of 
absence abroad  (1) If 
a person to whom the notification requirements apply is absent from the United 
Kingdom for any period the following provisions apply.  (2) During the period of absence the period for which 
the notification requirements apply continues to run.  (3) The 
period of absence does not affect the obligation under section 47 (initial 
notification).  This is subject to subsection (4). (4) Section 47 does not apply if—  (a) the 
period of absence begins before the end of the period within which notification 
must be made under that section, and  (b) the 
person’s absence results from the person’s removal from the United 
Kingdom.  (5) Section 48 (notification of changes)—  (a) applies in relation to an event that occurs 
before the period of absence, but  (b) does not apply in relation to an event that 
occurs during the period of absence.  Paragraph (a) is subject to subsection (6). (6) Section 48 does not apply in relation to an event 
that occurs before the period of absence if—  (a) the 
period of absence begins before the end of the period within which notification 
must be made under that section, and  (b) the 
person’s absence results from the person’s removal from the United 
Kingdom.  (7) Section 49 (periodic re-notification) does not 
apply if the period referred to in subsection (1) of that section ends during 
the period of absence.  (8) Section 53(7) (disregard of period of custody 
                        etc) applies in relation to 
the period of absence as if it referred to any period when the person 
was—  (a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order 
of a court outside the United Kingdom,  (b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or detention 
imposed by such a court,  (c) detained in a hospital pursuant to an order of 
such a court that is equivalent to a hospital order, or  (d) subject to a form of detention outside the United 
Kingdom that is equivalent to detention under the Immigration Acts.  (9) References in this section and section 56 to a 
person’s removal from the United Kingdom include—  (a) the 
person’s removal from the United Kingdom in accordance with the Immigration 
Acts,  (b) the 
person’s extradition from the United Kingdom, or  (c) the 
person’s transfer from the United Kingdom to another country pursuant to a 
warrant under section 1 of the Repatriation of Prisoners Act 1984 (c. 
47).  56 Notification 
on return after absence from UK  (1) This section applies if, before the end of the 
period for which the notification requirements apply, a person to whom the 
requirements apply returns to the United Kingdom after a period of absence 
and—  (a) the 
person was not required to make a notification under section 47 (initial 
notification),  (b) there has been a change to any of the information 
last notified to the police in accordance with—  (i) section 47,  (ii) section 48 (notification of changes),  (iii) section 49 (periodic re-notification), or 
 (iv) this section, or  (c) the 
period referred to in section 49(1) (period after which re-notification 
required) ended during the period of absence.  (2) The 
person must notify or (as the case may be) re-notify to the police the 
information mentioned in section 47(2) within the period of three days beginning 
with the day of return.  (3) In 
determining the period within which notification is to be made under this 
section, there shall be disregarded any time when the person is—  (a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order 
of a court,  (b) serving a sentence of imprisonment or 
detention,  (c) detained in a hospital, or  (d) detained under the Immigration Acts.  (4) This section does not apply if—  (a) the 
person subsequently leaves the United Kingdom,  (b) the 
period of absence begins before the end of the period within which notification 
must be made under this section, and  (c) the 
person’s absence results from the person’s removal from the United 
Kingdom.  (5) The 
obligation under this section does not affect any obligation to notify 
information under section 52(3) (regulations requiring notification of return 
etc).  Supplementary provisions  57 Notification orders  Schedule 4 makes provision for 
notification orders applying the notification requirements of this Part to 
persons who have been dealt with outside the United Kingdom in respect of a 
corresponding foreign offence. 58 Foreign 
travel restriction orders  Schedule 5 makes provision for 
foreign travel restriction orders prohibiting persons to whom the notification 
requirements apply from— (a) travelling to a country outside the United 
Kingdom named or described in the order,  (b) travelling to any country outside the United 
Kingdom other than a country named or described in the order, or  (c) travelling to any country outside the United 
Kingdom.  59 Application 
of Part to service offences and related matters  Schedule 6 makes provision for 
the application of this Part to service offences and related matters. 60 Minor 
definitions for Part 4  In this Part— 
                            
                                “country” includes a territory;
                                “detained in a hospital” means detained 
in a hospital under— 
                                    
                                        
                                            (a) Part 3 of the Mental Health Act 1983 
(c. 20), (b) Part 6 of the Criminal Procedure 
(Scotland) Act 1995 
(c. 46) or the Mental Health (Care and Treatment) (Scotland) Act 2003 (asp 
13), or (c) Part 3 of the Mental Health (Northern 
Ireland) Order (S.I. 1986/595 
(N.I. 4));
                                “home address” means, in relation to a 
person— 
                                    
                                        
                                            (a) the address of the person’s sole or 
main residence in the United Kingdom, or (b) where the person has no such residence, 
the address or location of a place in the United Kingdom where the person can 
regularly be found and, if there is more than one such place, such one of those 
places as the person may select;
                                “hospital order” means— 
                                    
                                        
                                            (a) a hospital order within the meaning of 
the Mental Health Act 1983, (b) an order under Part 6 of the Criminal 
Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995, or (c) a hospital order within the meaning of 
the Mental Health (Northern Ireland) Order 1986 (S.I. 1986/595 (N.I. 
4));
                                “passport” means— 
                                    
                                        
                                            (a) a United Kingdom passport within the 
meaning of the Immigration Act 1971 (c. 77), or (b) a passport issued by or on behalf of 
the authorities of a country outside the United Kingdom or by or on behalf of an 
international organisation, and includes any document that can be 
used (in some or all circumstances) instead of a passport;
                                “photograph” includes any process by 
means of which an image may be produced;
                                “release” from imprisonment or 
detention includes release on licence but not temporary release. 61 References 
to a person being “dealt with” for an offence  (1) References in this Part to a person being dealt 
with for or in respect of an offence are to their being sentenced, or made 
subject to a hospital order, in respect of the offence.  References in this Part to an offence being dealt 
with are to a person being dealt with in respect of the offence. (2) Subject to the following provisions of this 
section, references in this Part to the time at which a person is dealt with for 
an offence are to the time at which they are first dealt with—  (a) in 
England and Wales, by a magistrates' court or the Crown Court;  (b) in 
Scotland, by a sheriff or by the High Court of Justiciary;  (c) in 
Northern Ireland, by the county court.  This is referred to below as “the original 
decision”. (3) Where the original decision is varied (on appeal 
or otherwise), then—  (a) if 
the result is that the conditions for application of the notification 
requirements to a person in respect of an offence cease to be met (and paragraph 
(c) below does not apply), the notification requirements are treated as never 
having applied to that person in respect of that offence;  (b) if 
the result is that the conditions for application of the notification 
requirements to a person in respect of an offence are met where they were not 
previously met (and paragraph (c) below does not apply)—  (i) the 
person is treated as dealt with for the offence when the variation takes place, 
and  (ii) the notification requirements apply 
accordingly;  (c) if—  (i) a 
conviction of, or finding in relation to, a different offence is substituted, 
and  (ii) the conditions for application of the 
notification requirements were met in respect of the original offence and are 
also met in respect of the substituted offence,  the person is treated as if they had been dealt with 
for the substituted offence at the time of the original decision; (d) if 
the sentence is varied so as to become one by virtue of which the notification 
requirements would apply for a different period, the period for which those 
requirements apply shall be determined as if the sentence as varied had been 
imposed at the time of the original decision;  (e) in 
any other case, the variation is disregarded.  (4) For 
the purposes of—  (a) section 41(5) (effect of order adding offence to 
list of terrorism offences),  (b) section 44(a) or paragraph 4(a) of Schedule 6 
(persons subject to notification requirements: age when dealt with for 
offence),  (c) section 46(2) or paragraph 6(2) of Schedule 6 
(effect of order reducing term or period triggering notification 
requirements),  (d) section 53(5)(b) or paragraph 7(5)(b) of Schedule 
6 (period for which notification requirements apply: ending of period resulting 
from finding of disability etc where person subsequently tried), and  (e) paragraph 2(3) of Schedule 5 (conditions for 
making foreign travel restriction order: behaviour since offence dealt 
with),  a person is treated as dealt with at the time of the 
original decision and any subsequent variation of the decision is 
disregarded. (5) For 
the purposes of—  (a) section 43(1) and (2) or paragraph 3(1) and (2) 
of Schedule 6 (application of Part to offences dealt with before commencement), 
and  (b) paragraph 2(4) of Schedule 5 (conditions for 
making foreign travel restriction order where offence dealt with before 
commencement),  a person is dealt with for an offence before the 
commencement of this Part if the time of the original decision falls before the 
commencement of this Part. Where in such a case subsection (3) above applies 
for the purposes of any provision of this Part, that subsection has effect as if 
the provisions of this Part had been in force at all material times. (6) In 
section 47(6) (adaptation of initial notification requirements in case of 
offence dealt with before commencement)—  (a) the 
reference in the opening words to an offence dealt with before the commencement 
of this Part is to an offence where the time of the original decision falls 
before the commencement of this Part, and  (b) the 
reference in the closing words to when the offence is dealt with has the same 
meaning as in subsection (1) of that section.  (7) References in this section to the variation of a 
decision include any proceedings by which the decision is altered, set aside or 
quashed, or in which a further decision is come to following the setting aside 
or quashing of the decision. Part 5 
Terrorist financing and money 
laundering  62 Terrorist financing and money 
laundering  Schedule 7 makes provision 
conferring powers on the Treasury to act against terrorist financing, money 
laundering and certain other activities. Part 6 
Financial restrictions 
proceedings  Chapter 1 Application to set aside financial restrictions 
decision  63 Application to set aside financial 
restrictions decision  (1) This section applies to any decision of the 
Treasury in connection with the exercise of any of their functions under— 
 (a) the 
                        UN terrorism orders,  (b) Part 2 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security 
Act 2001 (c. 
24) (freezing orders), or  (c) Schedule 7 to this Act (terrorist financing, 
money laundering and certain other activities: financial restrictions). 
 (2) Any 
person affected by the decision may apply to the High Court or, in Scotland, the 
Court of Session to set aside the decision.  (3) In 
determining whether the decision should be set aside the court shall apply the 
principles applicable on an application for judicial review.  (4) If 
the court decides that a decision should be set aside it may make any such 
order, or give any such relief, as may be made or given in proceedings for 
judicial review.  (5) Without prejudice to the generality of subsection 
(4), if the court sets aside a decision of the Treasury—  (a) to 
give a direction under any of the UN terrorism orders,  (b) to 
make a freezing order under Part 2 of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 
2001 (c. 24), 
or  (c) to 
give a direction or make an order under Schedule 7 to this Act,  the court must quash the relevant direction or 
order. (6) This section applies whether the decision of the 
Treasury was made before or after the commencement of this section.  (7) After the commencement of this section an 
application to set aside a decision of the Treasury to which this section 
applies must be made under this section.  (8) This section does not apply to any decision of 
the Treasury to make an order under paragraph 8 or 28(6) of Schedule 7 to this 
Act.  64 UN terrorism 
orders  (1) For 
the purposes of section 63 the UN terrorism orders are—  (a) the 
Terrorism (United Nations Measures) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3365);  (b) the 
Al-Qa'ida and Taliban (United Nations Measures) Order 2002 (S.I. 
2002/111);  (c) the 
Terrorism (United Nations Measures) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/2657);  (d) the 
Al-Qaida and Taliban (United Nations Measures) Order 2006 (S.I. 
2006/2952).  (2) The 
Treasury may by order amend subsection (1) by—  (a) adding other Orders in Council made under section 
1 of the United Nations Act 1946 (c. 45),  (b) providing that a reference to a specified Order 
in Council is to that order as amended by a further Order in Council (made after 
the passing of this Act), or  (c) removing an Order in Council.  (3) An 
order under subsection (2) is subject to negative resolution procedure. 
 Chapter 
2 Financial 
restrictions proceedings  Introductory  65 Financial restrictions proceedings 
                        In this Chapter “financial 
restrictions proceedings” means proceedings in the High Court or the Court of 
Session on an application under section 63 or on a claim arising from any matter 
to which such an application relates. Rules of 
court, disclosure and related matters  66 General 
provisions about rules of court  (1) The 
following provisions apply to rules of court relating to—  (a) financial restrictions proceedings, or 
 (b) proceedings on an appeal relating to financial 
restrictions proceedings.  (2) A 
person making rules of court must have regard to—  (a) the 
need to secure that the decisions that are the subject of the proceedings are 
properly reviewed; and  (b) the 
need to secure that disclosures of information are not made where they would be 
contrary to the public interest.  (3) Rules of court may make provision—  (a) about the mode of proof and about evidence in the 
proceedings;  (b) enabling or requiring the proceedings to be 
determined without a hearing; and  (c) about legal representation in the 
proceedings.  (4) Rules of court may make provision—  (a) enabling the proceedings to take place without 
full particulars of the reasons for the decisions to which the proceedings 
relate being given to a party to the proceedings (or to any legal representative 
of that party);  (b) enabling the court to conduct proceedings in the 
absence of any person, including a party to the proceedings (or any legal 
representative of that party);  (c) about the functions of a person appointed as a 
special advocate;  (d) enabling the court to give a party to the 
proceedings a summary of evidence taken in the party’s absence.  (5) In 
this section—  (a) references to a party to the proceedings do not 
include the Treasury;  (b) references to a party’s legal representative do 
not include a person appointed as a special advocate.  (6) Nothing in this section shall be read as 
restricting the power to make rules of court or the matters to be taken into 
account when doing so.  67 Rules of 
court about disclosure  (1) The 
following provisions apply to rules of court relating to—  (a) financial restrictions proceedings, or 
 (b) proceedings on an appeal relating to financial 
restrictions proceedings.  (2) Rules of court must secure that the Treasury are 
required to disclose—  (a) material on which they rely,  (b) material which adversely affects their case, 
and  (c) material which supports the case of a party to 
the proceedings.  This is subject to the following provisions of this 
section. (3) Rules of court must secure—  (a) that the Treasury have the opportunity to make an 
application to the court for permission not to disclose material otherwise than 
to—  (i) 
the court, and  (ii) any person appointed as a special 
advocate;  (b) that such an application is always considered in 
the absence of every party to the proceedings (and every party’s legal 
representative);  (c) that the court is required to give permission for 
material not to be disclosed if it considers that the disclosure of the material 
would be contrary to the public interest;  (d) that, if permission is given by the court not to 
disclose material, it must consider requiring the Treasury to provide a summary 
of the material to every party to the proceedings (and every party’s legal 
representative);  (e) that the court is required to ensure that such a 
summary does not contain material the disclosure of which would be contrary to 
the public interest.  (4) Rules of court must secure that in cases where 
the Treasury—  (a) do 
not receive the court’s permission to withhold material, but elect not to 
disclose it, or  (b) are 
required to provide a party to the proceedings with a summary of material that 
is withheld, but elect not to provide the summary,  provision to the following effect applies. (5) The 
court must be authorised—  (a) if 
it considers that the material or anything that is required to be summarised 
might adversely affect the Treasury’s case or support the case of a party to the 
proceedings, to direct that the Treasury shall not rely on such points in their 
case, or shall make such concessions or take such other steps, as the court may 
specify, or  (b) in 
any other case, to ensure that the Treasury do not rely on the material or (as 
the case may be) on that which is required to be summarised.  (6) Nothing in this section, or in rules of court 
made under it, is to be read as requiring the court to act in a manner 
inconsistent with Article 6 of the Human Rights Convention.  (7) In 
this section—  (a) references to a party to the proceedings do not 
include the Treasury;  (b) references to a party’s legal representative do 
not include a person appointed as a special advocate; and  (c) “the Human Rights Convention” means the 
Convention within the meaning of the Human Rights Act 1998 (c. 42) (see 
section 21(1) of that Act).  68 Appointment 
of special advocate  (1) The 
relevant law officer may appoint a person to represent the interests of a party 
to—  (a) financial restrictions proceedings, or 
 (b) proceedings on an appeal, or further appeal, 
relating to financial restrictions proceedings,  in any of those proceedings from which the party 
(and any legal representative of the party) is excluded. This is referred to in this Chapter as appointment 
as “a special advocate”. (2) A 
person appointed as a special advocate is not responsible to the party to the 
proceedings whose interests the person is appointed to represent.  (3) The 
relevant law officer is—  (a) in 
relation to financial restrictions proceedings in England and Wales, or on an 
appeal or further appeal relating to such proceedings, the Attorney 
General;  (b) in 
relation to financial restrictions proceedings in Scotland, or on an appeal or 
further appeal relating to such proceedings, the Advocate General for 
Scotland;  (c) in 
relation to financial restrictions proceedings in Northern Ireland, or on an 
appeal or further appeal relating to such proceedings, the Advocate General for 
Northern Ireland.  (4) A 
person may be appointed as a special advocate only if—  (a) in 
the case of an appointment by the Attorney General, the person has a general 
legal qualification for the purposes of section 71 of the Courts and Legal 
Services Act 1990 
(c. 41);  (b) in 
the case of an appointment by the Advocate General for Scotland, the person is 
an advocate or a solicitor who has rights of audience in the Court of Session or 
the High Court of Justiciary by virtue of section 25A of the Solicitors 
(Scotland) Act 1980 (c. 46);  (c) in 
the case of an appointment by the Advocate General for Northern Ireland, the 
person is a member of the Bar of Northern Ireland.  (5) Until the coming into force of section 27 of the 
Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 2002 (c. 26), references in this section to the Advocate General 
for Northern Ireland are to be read as references to the Attorney General for 
Northern Ireland.  The coming into force of that section does not 
affect any appointment of a person as a special advocate made by the Attorney 
General for Northern Ireland before that time. 69 Intercept 
evidence  (1) Section 18 of the Regulation of Investigatory 
Powers Act 2000 (c. 
23) (exceptions to exclusion of intercepted communications  etc from legal proceedings) is amended as 
follows.  (2) In 
subsection (1) (excepted proceedings), after paragraph (da) insert—  “(db) any financial restrictions proceedings as 
defined in section 65 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008, or any proceedings 
arising out of such proceedings;”.  (3) In 
subsection (2) (persons to whom disclosure not to be made), after paragraph (za) 
insert—  “(zb) in the case of proceedings falling within 
paragraph (db), to—  (i) a person, other than the Treasury, who is 
or was a party to the proceedings, or  (ii) any person who for the purposes of the 
proceedings (but otherwise than by virtue of appointment as a special advocate) 
represents a person falling within sub-paragraph (i);”.  70 Qualification of duty to give reasons  In paragraph 11 of 
Schedule 3 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) 
(Treasury’s duty to give reason why person is specified in freezing order), make 
the existing provision sub-paragraph (1) and after it insert— “(2) 
Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply if, 
or to the extent that, particulars of the reason would not be required to be 
disclosed to the applicant in proceedings to set aside the freezing order.”.  Supplementary provisions  71 Allocation of proceedings to Queen’s Bench 
Division  In paragraph 2 of Schedule 
1 to the Supreme Court Act 1981 (c. 54) (business allocated to the Queen’s Bench 
Division), after sub-paragraph (ba) insert— “(bb) all financial restrictions proceedings 
within the meaning of Chapter 2 of Part 6 of the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (see 
section 65 of that Act);”.  72 Initial 
exercise of powers by Lord Chancellor  (1) The 
first time after the passing of this Act that rules of court are made in 
exercise of the powers conferred by this Chapter—  (a) in 
relation to proceedings in England and Wales, or  (b) in 
relation to proceedings in Northern Ireland,  they may be made by the Lord Chancellor instead of 
by the person who would otherwise make them. (2) Before making rules of court under this section, 
the Lord Chancellor must consult—  (a) in 
relation to rules applicable to proceedings in England and Wales, the Lord Chief 
Justice of England and Wales;  (b) in 
relation to rules applicable to proceedings in Northern Ireland, the Lord Chief 
Justice of Northern Ireland.  The Lord Chancellor is not required to undertake any 
other consultation before making the rules. (3) The 
requirements of subsection (2)(a) and (b) may be satisfied by consultation that 
took place wholly or partly before the passing of this Act.  (4) Rules of court made by the Lord Chancellor under 
this section—  (a) must be laid before Parliament, and  (b) if 
not approved by a resolution of each House before the end of 40 days beginning 
with the day on which they were made, cease to have effect at the end of that 
period.  In reckoning the period of 40 days no account shall 
be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or during 
which both Houses are adjourned for more than four days. (5) If 
rules cease to have effect in accordance with subsection (4)—  (a) that does not affect anything previously done in 
reliance on the rules; and  (b) subsection (1) applies as if the rules had not 
been made.  (6) The 
following provisions do not apply to rules of court made by the Lord Chancellor 
under this section—  (a) section 3(6) of the Civil Procedure Act 1997 (c. 12) 
(Parliamentary procedure for civil procedure rules);  (b) section 56 of the Judicature (Northern Ireland) 
Act 1978 (c. 23) (statutory rules procedure).  Until section 85 of the Courts Act 2003 (c. 39) 
(process for making civil procedure rules) comes into force, in paragraph (a) 
above for “section 3(6)” substitute “section 3(2)”. 73 Interpretation  In this Chapter— 
                            
                                “financial restrictions proceedings” 
has the meaning given by section 65;
                                “rules of court” means rules for 
regulating the practice and procedure to be followed in the High Court or the 
Court of Appeal or in the Court of Session;
                                “special advocate” means a person 
appointed under section 68. Part 7 
Miscellaneous  Inquiries  74 Inquiries: intercept evidence  (1) In 
section 18 of the Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act 2000 (c. 23) 
(exceptions to exclusion of intercepted communications  etc from legal proceedings), in 
subsection (7), for paragraph (c) substitute—  “(c) 
a disclosure to the panel of an 
inquiry held under the Inquiries Act 2005 or to a person appointed as counsel to 
such an inquiry where, in the course of the inquiry, the panel has ordered the 
disclosure to be made to the panel alone or (as the case may be) to the panel 
and the person appointed as counsel to the inquiry; or”.  (2) This section has effect in relation to inquiries 
under the Inquiries Act 2005 (c. 12) that have begun, but have not come to an end, before 
the day on which it comes into force as well as to such inquiries beginning or 
on after that day.  (3) Section 14 of the Inquiries Act 2005 (end of 
inquiry) has effect for determining when an inquiry under that Act comes to an 
end for those purposes.  Amendment 
of definition of “terrorism” etc  75 Amendment of definition of “terrorism” 
etc  (1) In 
the provisions listed below (which define “terrorism”, or make similar 
provision, and require that the use or threat of action is made for the purpose 
of advancing a political, religious or ideological cause), after “religious” 
insert “, racial”.  (2) The 
provisions are—  (a) section 1(1)(c) of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 
11),  (b) section 113A(2) of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and 
Security Act 2001 
(c. 24),  (c) paragraph 4(2)(c) of Schedule 21 to the Criminal 
Justice Act 2003 
(c. 44),  (d) Article 2(3)(c) of the Terrorism (United Nations 
Measures) Order 2006 (S.I.
2006/2657),  (e) Article 4(1)(c) of the Anti-terrorism (Financial 
and Other Measures) (Overseas Territories) Order 2002 (S.I. 2002/1822), 
 (f) Article 2(1)(a)(iii) of the Terrorism (United 
Nations Measures) (Overseas Territories) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3366), 
 (g) Article 3(1) of the Terrorism (United Nations 
Measures) (Isle of Man) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3364),  (h) Article 3(1) of the Terrorism (United Nations 
Measures) (Channel Islands) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3363).  Terrorist 
offences  76 Offences relating to information about 
members of armed forces etc  (1) After section 58 of the Terrorism Act 2000 
(collection of information) insert—  “58A Eliciting, publishing or communicating 
information about members of armed forces etc  (1) A person commits an offence who— 
 (a) elicits or attempts to elicit information 
about an individual who is or has been—  (i) a member of Her Majesty’s forces, 
 (ii) a member of any of the intelligence 
services, or  (iii) a constable,  which is of a kind likely to be useful to a 
person committing or preparing an act of terrorism, or (b) publishes or communicates any such 
information.  (2) It is a defence for a person charged with 
an offence under this section to prove that they had a reasonable excuse for 
their action.  (3) A person guilty of an offence under this 
section is liable—  (a) on conviction on indictment, to 
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 10 years or to a fine, or to both; 
 (b) on summary conviction—  (i) in England and Wales or Scotland, to 
imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to a fine not exceeding the 
statutory maximum, or to both;  (ii) in Northern Ireland, to imprisonment for a 
term not exceeding 6 months or to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum, or 
to both.  (4) In this section “the intelligence 
services” means the Security Service, the Secret Intelligence Service and 
                        GCHQ (within 
the meaning of section 3 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c. 
13)).  (5) Schedule 8A to this Act contains 
supplementary provisions relating to the offence under this section.”.  (2) In 
the application of section 58A in England and Wales in relation to an offence 
committed before the commencement of section 154(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 
2003 (c. 44) 
the reference in subsection (3)(b)(i) to 12 months is to be read as a reference 
to 6 months.  (3) In 
section 118 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) 
(defences), in subsection (5)(a) after “58,” insert “58A,”.  (4) After Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000 insert 
the Schedule set out in Schedule 8 to this Act.  77 Terrorist 
property: disclosure of information about possible offences  (1) Part 3 of the Terrorism Act 2000 (terrorist 
property) is amended as follows.  (2) In 
section 19(1) (duty to disclose belief or suspicion that offence committed), in 
paragraph (b) for “comes to his attention in the course of a trade, profession, 
business or employment” substitute— “comes to his attention—  (i) in the course of a trade, profession or 
business, or  (ii) in the course of his employment (whether 
or not in the course of a trade, profession or business).”.  (3) After section 22 insert—  “22A Meaning of “employment”  In sections 19 to 
21B— (a) “employment” means any employment (whether 
paid or unpaid) and includes—  (i) work under a contract for services or as 
an office-holder,  (ii) work experience provided pursuant to a 
training course or programme or in the course of training for employment, 
and  (iii) voluntary work;  (b) “employer” has a corresponding 
meaning.”.  (4) So 
far as the amendment in subsection (3) above extends any provision of sections 
19 to 21B of the Terrorism Act 2000 involving belief or suspicion to cases to 
which that provision did not previously apply, that provision applies where the 
belief or suspicion is held after subsection (3) above comes into force even if 
based on information that came to the person’s attention before that subsection 
was in force.  In any such case sections 19(2), 21(3) and 21A(4) of 
that Act (duty to make disclosure as soon as is reasonably practicable) are to 
be read as requiring the person to act as soon as is reasonably practicable 
after subsection (3) above comes into force. Control 
orders  78 Control 
orders: powers of entry and search  (1) After section 7 of the Prevention of Terrorism 
Act 2005 (c. 2) 
insert—  “7A Powers of entry and search: 
absconding  (1) If a constable reasonably suspects that 
the controlled person has absconded, the constable may enter (if necessary by 
force) and search premises to which this section applies—  (a) for the purpose of determining whether the 
person has absconded;  (b) if it appears that the person has 
absconded, for material that may assist in the pursuit and arrest of the 
controlled person.  (2) The premises to which this section applies 
are—  (a) the controlled person’s place of 
residence;  (b) other premises to which the controlled 
person is required to grant access in accordance with an obligation imposed by 
or under the control order;  (c) any premises—  (i) to which the controlled person has 
previously been required to grant access in accordance with an obligation 
imposed by or under a control order, and  (ii) with which there is reason to believe that 
the controlled person is or was recently connected.  7B Powers of entry and search: failure to 
grant access to premises  (1) This section applies where a constable 
reasonably suspects that the controlled person is not granting access to 
premises, as required by an obligation imposed by or under the control order, at 
a time when the controlled person is required, by an obligation so imposed, to 
be at those premises.  (2) The constable may enter (if necessary by 
force) and search the premises—  (a) for the purpose of determining whether any 
of the obligations imposed by or under the control order have been 
contravened;  (b) if it appears that an obligation has been 
contravened, for material that may assist in the investigation of the 
contravention.  7C Powers of entry and search: monitoring 
compliance with order  (1) A constable may apply for the issue of a 
warrant under this section for the purposes of determining whether the 
controlled person is complying with the obligations imposed by or under a 
control order.  (2) The application must be made—  (a) in England and Wales, to a justice of the 
peace;  (b) in Scotland, to the sheriff;  (c) in Northern Ireland, to a lay 
magistrate.  (3) A warrant under this section shall 
authorise any constable to enter (if necessary by force) and search premises to 
which this section applies that are specified in the warrant.  (4) The premises to which this section applies 
are—  (a) the controlled person’s place of 
residence;  (b) other premises to which the controlled 
person is required to grant access in accordance with an obligation imposed by 
or under the control order;  (c) any premises—  (i) to which the controlled person has 
previously been required to grant access in accordance with an obligation 
imposed by or under a control order, and  (ii) with which there is reason to believe that 
the controlled person is or was recently connected.  (5) An application under this section may only 
be granted if the justice of the peace, the sheriff or the lay magistrate is 
satisfied that the issue of the warrant is necessary for the purposes of 
determining whether the controlled person is complying with the obligations 
imposed by or under the control order.”. 
 (2) In 
section 9 of that Act (offences)—  (a) after subsection (3) insert—  “(3A) A person who intentionally obstructs the 
exercise by a constable of a power conferred by section 7A or 7B or by a warrant 
under section 7C commits an offence.”; 
 (b) in 
subsection (7) after “subsection (3)” insert “or (3A)”.  (3) These amendments have effect as from the 
commencement of this section and apply regardless of when the control order was 
made.  79 Control 
orders: meaning of involvement in terrorism-related activity  (1) In 
section 1(9) of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 (c. 2) 
(meaning of involvement in terrorism-related activity), in paragraph (d), for 
“to be involved in terrorism-related activity” substitute “by the individual 
concerned to be involved in conduct falling within paragraphs (a) to 
(c)”.  (2) This amendment shall be deemed always to have had 
effect.  80 Time allowed 
for representations by controlled person  (1) Section 3 of the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 
(supervision by court of making of non-derogating control orders) is amended as 
follows.  (2) In 
subsection (7) (opportunity for individual to make representations about 
directions given by the court), omit “within 7 days of the court’s giving 
permission or (as the case may be) making its determination on the 
reference”.  (3) After that subsection insert—  “(7A) The individual must be given the 
opportunity to make those representations—  (a) in the case of directions under subsection 
(2)(c), within 7 days of notice of the terms of the control order being 
delivered to the individual in accordance with section 7(8);  (b) in the case of directions given under 
subsection (6)(b) or (c), within 7 days of the court making its determination on 
the reference.”.  (4) These amendments apply in relation to control 
orders made after this section comes into force.  81 Application 
for anonymity for controlled person  (1) In 
the Schedule to the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 (c. 2) 
(control order proceedings etc), paragraph 5 (application for anonymity for 
controlled person) is amended as follows.  (2) In 
sub-paragraph (1)(a) omit “, at any time after a control order has been 
made,”.  (3) After sub-paragraph (3) insert—  “(4) 
In relation to a time before the 
control order has been made references in this paragraph to “the controlled 
person” shall be read as references to the person in respect of whom the 
Secretary of State has made an application to the court for (as the case may 
be)—  (a) permission to make a non-derogating 
control order under section 3(1)(a), or  (b) the making of a derogating control order 
under section 4(1).”.  (4) These amendments shall be deemed always to have 
had effect.  Pre-charge 
detention of terrorist suspects  82 Pre-charge detention: minor amendments 
                        (1) In 
paragraph 9 of Schedule 8 to the Terrorism Act 2000 (direction that detained 
person may consult solicitor only within sight and hearing of qualified 
officer), for sub-paragraph (3) (grounds on which direction may be given) 
substitute—  “(3) 
A direction under this paragraph may 
be given only if the officer giving it has reasonable grounds for 
believing—  (a) that, unless the direction is given, the 
exercise of the right by the detained person will have any of the consequences 
specified in paragraph 8(4), or  (b) that the detained person has benefited 
from his criminal conduct and that, unless the direction is given, the exercise 
of the right by the detained person will hinder the recovery of the value of the 
property constituting the benefit.”. 
 (2) In 
paragraph 29(4) of that Schedule (meaning of “judicial authority”), in 
paragraphs (a) and (c) omit “after consulting the Lord Chancellor”.  Forfeiture 
of terrorist cash  83 Forfeiture of terrorist cash: determination 
of period for which cash may be detained  (1) Schedule 1 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and 
Security Act 2001 
(c. 24) (forfeiture of terrorist cash) is amended as follows.  (2) In 
paragraph 3 (detention of seized cash), after sub-paragraph (1) (which specifies 
the period for which cash seized may initially be detained) insert—  “(1A) In determining the period of 48 hours 
specified in sub-paragraph (1) there shall be disregarded—  (a) any Saturday or Sunday;  (b) Christmas Day;  (c) Good Friday;  (d) any day that is a bank holiday under the 
Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in the part of the United Kingdom in 
which the cash is seized;  (e) any day prescribed under section 8(2) of 
the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 as a court holiday in the sheriff 
court district in which the cash is seized.”.  (3) In 
paragraphs 4(1) and 10(2) (which refer to the period specified in paragraph 
3(1)), after “48 hours” insert “(determined in accordance with paragraph 
3(1A))”.  (4) The 
amendments in this section apply in relation to cash seized after this section 
comes into force.  84 Forfeiture 
of terrorist cash: appeal against decision in forfeiture proceedings 
                        (1) In 
Schedule 1 to the Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (forfeiture of 
terrorist cash), for paragraph 7 (appeal against forfeiture) substitute— 
 “Appeal against decision in forfeiture 
proceedings7 (1) A party to proceedings for an order under 
paragraph 6 (“a forfeiture order”) who is aggrieved by a forfeiture order made 
in the proceedings or by the decision of the court or sheriff not to make a 
forfeiture order may appeal—  (a) in England and Wales, to the Crown 
Court;  (b) in Scotland, to the sheriff 
principal;  (c) in Northern Ireland, to a county 
court.  (2) The appeal must be brought before the end 
of the period of 30 days beginning with the date on which the order is made or, 
as the case may be, the decision is given.  This is subject to paragraph 7A (extended 
time for appealing in certain cases of deproscription). (3) The court or sheriff principal hearing the 
appeal may make any order that appears to the court or sheriff principal to be 
appropriate.  (4) If an appeal against a forfeiture order is 
upheld, the court or sheriff principal may order the release of the cash. 
 Extended time for 
appealing in certain cases where deproscription order made7A (1) This paragraph applies where—  (a) a successful application for a forfeiture 
order relies (wholly or partly) on the fact that an organisation is 
proscribed,  (b) an application under section 4 of the 
Terrorism Act 2000 for a deproscription order in respect of the organisation is 
refused by the Secretary of State,  (c) the forfeited cash is seized under this 
Schedule on or after the date of the refusal of that application,  (d) an appeal against that refusal is allowed 
under section 5 of that Act,  (e) a deproscription order is made 
accordingly, and  (f) if the order is made in reliance on 
section 123(5) of that Act, a resolution is passed by each House of Parliament 
under section 123(5)(b).  (2) Where this paragraph applies, an appeal 
under paragraph 7 above against the forfeiture order may be brought at any time 
before the end of the period of 30 days beginning with the date on which the 
deproscription order comes into force.  (3) In this paragraph a “deproscription order” 
means an order under section 3(3)(b) or (8) of the Terrorism Act 2000.”.  (2) This amendment applies where the order or 
decision of the court or sheriff against which the appeal is brought is made or 
given after this section comes into force.  Costs of 
policing at gas facilities  85 Costs 
of policing at gas facilities: England and Wales  (1) This section applies where the Secretary of State 
considers—  (a) that the provision of extra police services at a 
gas facility in England or Wales is necessary because of a risk of loss of or 
disruption to the supply of gas connected with it, and  (b) that the loss or disruption would have a serious 
impact on the United Kingdom or any part of it.  (2) In 
this section “extra police services” means—  (a) the 
services of the Ministry of Defence Police provided under an agreement with the 
Secretary of State for Defence under section 2(2)(e) of the Ministry of Defence 
Police Act 1987 (c. 4), or  (b) special police services provided under section 
25(1) of the Police Act 1996 (c. 16) at the Secretary of State’s request.  (3) The 
Secretary of State may require a designated gas transporter who has an interest 
in the gas facility to pay all or part of the costs incurred by the Secretary of 
State in respect of the provision of extra police services in or around the 
facility.  (4) In 
this section “gas facility” means a facility used for the purposes of, or for 
purposes connected with, the transportation of gas from a gas shipper to a gas 
transporter or gas supplier.  (5) The 
reference in subsection (3) to a designated gas transporter having an interest 
in a gas facility includes the facility being used for, or for purposes 
connected with, the supply of gas to the transporter.  86 Costs of 
policing at gas facilities: Scotland  (1) This section applies where the Secretary of State 
considers—  (a) that the provision of extra police services at a 
gas facility in Scotland is necessary because of a risk of loss of or disruption 
to the supply of gas connected with it, and  (b) that the loss or disruption would have a serious 
impact on the United Kingdom or any part of it.  (2) In 
this section “extra police services” means—  (a) the 
services of the Ministry of Defence Police provided under an agreement with the 
Secretary of State for Defence under section 2(2)(e) of the Ministry of Defence 
Police Act 1987 (c. 4), or  (b) police services provided under an agreement under 
section 13 of the Police (Scotland) Act 1967 (c. 77) for the guarding, 
patrolling and watching of the gas facility entered into at the request of the 
Secretary of State by—  (i) the 
occupier of, or of part of, the facility, and  (ii) the police authority, chief constable of the 
police force or joint police board for the police area in which it is 
situated.  (3) The 
Secretary of State may require a designated gas transporter who has an interest 
in the gas facility to pay all or part of the costs incurred by the Secretary of 
State in respect of the provision of extra police services within subsection 
(2)(a) in or around the facility.  (4) The 
Secretary of State, if so requested by the occupier, must require a designated 
gas transporter who has an interest in the gas facility to pay the reasonable 
costs incurred by the occupier under any such agreement as is mentioned in 
subsection (2)(b).  (5) In 
this section “gas facility” means a facility used for the purposes of, or for 
purposes connected with, the transportation of gas from a gas shipper to a gas 
transporter or gas supplier.  (6) References in this section to a designated gas 
transporter having an interest in a gas facility include the facility being used 
for, or for purposes connected with, the supply of gas to the 
transporter.  87 Designated 
gas transporters  (1) The 
Secretary of State may by order designate a person who is the holder of a 
licence under section 7 of the Gas Act 1986 (c. 44) (licensing of gas 
transporters) as a designated gas transporter for the purposes of sections 85 to 
90.  (2) The 
order may provide for a person to be designated only in such capacity as may be 
specified in the order.  (3) An 
order under this section is subject to negative resolution procedure. 
 88 Costs of 
policing at gas facilities: recovery of costs  (1) The 
Secretary of State may determine—  (a) the 
amount of the costs to be paid by a designated gas transporter under section 85 
or 86,  (b) the 
manner in which and the times at which those costs are to be paid, and 
 (c) the 
person or persons to whom they are to be paid.  (2) An 
occupier who incurs costs under an agreement under section 13 of the Police 
(Scotland) Act 1967 (c. 77) that are required to be paid by a designated gas 
transporter under section 86 may recover them directly from the designated gas 
transporter.  (3) A 
designated gas transporter may, in determining its charges for conveying gas 
through pipes, take into account—  (a) any 
payments made by the designated gas transporter under section 85 or 86, 
and  (b) the 
reasonable costs incurred by it as party to an agreement under section 13 of the 
Police (Scotland) Act 1967 entered into at the Secretary of State’s 
request.  This applies despite anything in the conditions of 
the designated gas transporter’s licence under section 7 of the Gas Act 1986 (c. 
44) that prevents the transporter from recovering such payments or costs. (4) The 
Secretary of State may direct the Gas and Electricity Markets Authority (“the 
Authority”)—  (a) to 
treat the payments or costs as costs of a kind specified by the Secretary of 
State for the purposes of the determination by the designated gas transporter of 
the transporter’s charges, or  (b) to 
allow the designated gas transporter to take into account payments made or costs 
incurred in or in relation to a period so specified in determining the 
transporter’s charges for a period so specified.  (5) The 
Secretary of State must consult the designated gas transporter and the Authority 
before giving a direction under this section.  89 Costs of 
policing at gas facilities: supplementary provisions  (1) The 
Secretary of State must consult a designated gas transporter and the 
Authority—  (a) before the first time the Secretary of State 
requires the designated gas transporter to pay any costs under section 85 or 
86,  (b) before the first time the Secretary of State 
requires the designated gas transporter to pay such costs in respect of a 
particular gas facility, and  (c) where extra police services were previously 
provided at a particular gas facility, before the first time the Secretary of 
State requires the designated gas transporter to pay such costs as the result of 
such services being provided on a subsequent occasion.  (2) The 
Secretary of State is not required—  (a) to 
take into account representations made after the end of the period of 28 days 
beginning with the day on which the person making the representations was 
consulted under subsection (1);  (b) to 
consult anyone else before requiring a designated gas transporter to pay costs 
under section 85 or 86.  (3) Sections 4AA to 4A of the Gas Act 1986 (c. 44) 
(principal objective and general duties of the Secretary of State and the 
Authority) do not apply in relation to anything done or omitted by the Secretary 
of State or the Authority in the exercise of functions under sections 85 to 
89.  (4) Expressions used in those sections that are 
defined in Part 1 of the Gas Act 1986 have the same meaning as in that 
Part.  90 Application 
of provisions to costs incurred before commencement  Sections 85 to 89 apply in 
relation to costs incurred in the period— (a) beginning with 16th January 2007, and  (b) ending with the day before those sections come 
into force,  as they apply in relation to costs incurred on or 
after that day. Appointment of special advocates in Northern Ireland 
                        91 Appointment of special advocates in Northern 
Ireland  (1) In 
the following provisions for “Attorney General for Northern Ireland”, wherever 
occurring, substitute “Advocate General for Northern Ireland”.  (2) The 
provisions are—  
                            
                                section 6(2)(c) of the Special 
Immigration Appeals Commission Act 1997 (c. 68) 
(appointment of special advocate in proceedings before the Special Immigration 
Appeals Commission);
                                rule 9(1) of the Northern Ireland Act 
Tribunal (Procedure) Rules 1999 (S.I. 1999/2131) (appointment of special 
advocate in proceedings before the tribunal appointed under section 91 of the 
Northern Ireland Act 1998 (c. 47));
                                paragraph 7(2)(c) of Schedule 3 to the 
Terrorism Act 2000 
(c. 11) (appointment of special advocate in proceedings before the 
Proscribed Organisations Appeal Commission);
                                paragraph 6(2)(c) of Schedule 6 to the 
Anti-terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24) 
(appointment of special advocate in proceedings before the Pathogens Access 
Appeal Commission). (3) These amendments come into force when section 27 
of the Justice (Northern Ireland) Act 2002 (c. 26) comes 
into force. Part 8 
Supplementary provisions 
                        General definitions  92 Meaning 
of “terrorism”  In this Act “terrorism” has 
the same meaning as in the Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) (see 
section 1 of that Act). 93 Meaning of 
offence having a “terrorist connection”  For the purposes of this Act 
an offence has a terrorist connection if the offence— (a) is, 
or takes place in the course of, an act of terrorism, or  (b) is 
committed for the purposes of terrorism.  94 Meaning of 
“ancillary offence”  (1) In 
this Act “ancillary offence”, in relation to an offence, means any of the 
following—  (a) aiding, abetting, counselling or procuring the 
commission of the offence (or, in Scotland, being art and part in the commission 
of the offence);  (b) an 
offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime Act 2007 (c. 27) 
(encouraging or assisting crime) in relation to the offence (or, in Scotland, 
inciting a person to commit the offence);  (c) attempting or conspiring to commit the 
offence.  (2) In 
subsection (1)(b) the reference to an offence under Part 2 of the Serious Crime 
Act 2007 includes, in relation to times before the commencement of that Part, an 
offence of incitement under the law of England and Wales or Northern 
Ireland.  95 Meaning of 
“service court” and “service offence”  (1) In 
this Act “service court” means the Court Martial, the Service Civilian Court or 
the Court Martial Appeal Court.  (2) Until the commencement of the relevant provisions 
of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (c. 52), the following is substituted for subsection 
(1)—  “(1) 
In this Act “service court” 
means—  (a) a court-martial constituted under the Army 
Act 1955 (3 & 4  Eliz. 2 c. 18), the Air Force 
Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 19) or the Naval Discipline Act 1957 (c. 
53);  (b) the Courts-Martial Appeal Court; or 
 (c) a Standing Civilian Court.”.  (3) In 
this Act “service offence” means an offence under—  (a) section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006, 
 (b) section 70 of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force 
Act 1955, or  (c) section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act 
1957.  (4) References in this Act to the “corresponding 
civil offence” in relation to a service offence are—  (a) in 
relation to an offence under section 42 of the Armed Forces Act 2006, to the 
corresponding offence under the law of England and Wales within the meaning of 
that section;  (b) in 
relation to an offence under section 70 of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force 
Act 1955, to the corresponding civil offence within the meaning of that 
Act;  (c) in 
relation to an offence under section 42 of the Naval Discipline Act 1957, to the 
civil offence within the meaning of that section.  (5) Section 48 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (c. 52) 
(supplementary provisions relating to ancillary service offences) applies for 
the purposes of subsection (4)(a) above as it applies for the purposes of the 
provisions of that Act referred to in subsection (3)(b) of that section. 
 Orders and 
regulations  96 Orders 
and regulations  (1) Orders and regulations under this Act must be 
made by statutory instrument.  (2) Orders or regulations under this Act may— 
 (a) make different provision for different cases or 
circumstances,  (b) include supplementary, incidental and 
consequential provision, and  (c) make transitional provision and savings. 
 (3) Any 
provision that may be made by regulations under this Act may be made by order; 
and any provision that may be made by order under this Act may be made by 
regulations.  97 Orders and 
regulations: affirmative and negative resolution procedure  (1) Where orders or regulations under this Act are 
subject to “affirmative resolution procedure” the order or regulations must not 
be made unless a draft of the statutory instrument containing them has been laid 
before Parliament and approved by a resolution of each House of 
Parliament.  (2) Where orders or regulations under this Act are 
subject to “negative resolution procedure” the statutory instrument containing 
the order or regulations shall be subject to annulment in pursuance of a 
resolution of either House of Parliament.  (3) Provision that may be made by order or 
regulations under this Act for which no Parliamentary procedure is prescribed 
may be included in an instrument subject to negative or affirmative resolution 
procedure.  (4) Provision that may be made by order or 
regulations under this Act subject to negative resolution procedure may be 
included in an instrument subject to affirmative resolution procedure. 
 Financial 
provisions  98 Financial provisions  (1) There shall be paid out of money provided by 
Parliament—  (a) any 
expenses of the Secretary of State under this Act, and  (b) any 
increase attributable to this Act in the sums payable out of money so provided 
under any other Act.  (2) There shall be paid into the Consolidated 
Fund—  (a) any 
sums received by the Secretary of State under this Act, and  (b) any 
increase attributable to this Act in the sums payable into that Fund under any 
other Act.  Repeals 
and revocations  99 Repeals 
and revocations  The enactments specified in 
Schedule 9, which include enactments that are spent, are repealed or revoked to 
the extent specified. Final 
provisions  100 Commencement  (1) The 
provisions of this Part, except section 99 and Schedule 9 (repeals and 
revocations), come into force on the day this Act is passed.  (2) Part 5 (terrorist financing and money laundering) 
and Part 6 (financial restrictions proceedings) come into force on the day after 
the day on which this Act is passed.  (3) Sections 85 to 90 (costs of policing at gas 
facilities) come into force at the end of the period of two months beginning 
with the day on which this Act is passed.  (4) Section 91 (appointment of special advocates in 
Northern Ireland) comes into force in accordance with subsection (3) of that 
section.  (5) The 
other provisions of this Act come into force on such day as may be appointed by 
order of the Secretary of State.  (6) The 
Secretary of State may by order make such transitional provision and savings as 
appears necessary or expedient in connection with the commencement of any 
provision of this Act.  101 Extent  (1) Except as otherwise provided—  (a) an 
amendment or repeal by this Act has the same extent as the enactment amended or 
repealed; and  (b) any 
other provisions of this Act—  (i) 
extend to the whole of the United Kingdom, 
and  (ii) do 
not extend to any country or territory outside the United Kingdom.  (2) Nothing in this section shall be read as 
restricting the application of any provision of this Act in relation to service 
courts or service offences.  102 Short 
title  The short title of this Act 
is the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 SCHEDULESSection 20 SCHEDULE 1 Disclosure and the intelligence 
services: consequential amendments  Anti-terrorism, Crime 
and Security Act 2001 (c. 24)1 In section 19(2) of the Anti-terrorism, Crime and 
Security Act 2001 (disclosure of information held by revenue departments), omit 
paragraph (a).  Representation of the 
People (England and Wales) Regulations 2001 (S.I. 2001/341)2 (1) The 
Representation of the People (England and Wales) Regulations 2001 are amended as 
follows.  (2) In 
regulation 45E (supply of record of anonymous entries to the security services), 
omit paragraphs (3) and (4).  (3) In 
regulation 102(6) (supply of full register: general restrictions on use), for 
“regulations 103 to 109” substitute “regulations 103 to 108 or 109”.  (4) After regulation 108 insert—  “108A Supply of full register  etc to the security services 
                        (1) This regulation applies to—  (a) the Security Service;  (b) the Government Communications 
Headquarters;  (c) the Secret Intelligence Service. 
 (2) For the purposes of regulation 102(1) 
above the relevant part of the documents listed in that provision is the whole 
of them.”.  (5) In 
regulation 109 (supply of full register etc to police force and other agencies 
and restrictions on use), omit—  (a) paragraph (1)(g) to (i);  (b) in 
paragraph (4)(a), the words preceding paragraph (i);  (c) paragraph (4)(b) and the word “and” immediately 
preceding it.  (6) In 
regulation 113 (sale of full register to government departments and other 
bodies)—  (a) in 
the closing words of paragraph (1), after “other than” insert “a department to 
which regulation 108A applies or”;  (b) in 
paragraph (3) for “regulation 109(1)(g) to (i),” substitute “regulation 
108A”.  (7) In 
regulation 115(2) (offences) omit “45E(3),”.  (8) For 
regulation 118(8) (provision of copies of documents open to public inspection) 
substitute insert—  “(8) 
The relevant registration officer 
shall, on request, supply free of charge copies of any documents open to public 
inspection—  (a) to each of the departments mentioned in 
regulation 108A;  (b) to a person who has inspected those 
documents and who is entitled to be supplied with a copy of the marked register 
or lists by virtue of being a person to whom regulation 109 applies.”.  (9) In 
regulation 119(3) for “regulation 118(8)” substitute “regulation 
118(8)(b)”.  Representation of the 
People (Scotland) Regulations 2001 (S.I. 2001/497)3 (1) The 
Representation of the People (Scotland) Regulations 2001 are amended as 
follows.  (2) In 
regulation 45D (supply of record of anonymous entries to the security services), 
omit paragraphs (3) and (4).  (3) In 
regulation 101(6) (supply of full register: general restrictions on use), for 
“regulations 102 to 108” substitute “regulations 102 to 107 or 108”.  (4) After regulation 107 insert—  “107A Supply of full register etc to the 
security services  (1) This regulation applies to—  (a) the Security Service;  (b) the Government Communications 
Headquarters;  (c) the Secret Intelligence Service. 
 (2) For the purposes of regulation 101(1) 
above the relevant part of the documents listed in that provision is the whole 
of them.”.  (5) In 
regulation 108 (supply of full register etc to police force and other agencies 
and restrictions on use), omit—  (a) paragraph (1)(g) to (i);  (b) in 
paragraph (4)(a), the words preceding paragraph (i);  (c) paragraph (4)(b) and the word “and” immediately 
preceding it.  (6) In 
regulation 112 (sale of full register to government departments and other 
bodies)—  (a) in 
the closing words of paragraph (1), after “other than” insert “a department to 
which regulation 107A applies or”;  (b) in 
paragraph (3) for “regulation 108(1)(g) to (i),” substitute “regulation 
107A”.  (7) In 
regulation 115(2) (offences) omit “45D(3),”.  (8) For 
regulation 118(8) (provision of copies of documents open to public inspection) 
substitute—  “(8) 
The relevant registration officer 
shall, on request, supply free of charge copies of any documents open to public 
inspection—  (a) to each of the departments mentioned in 
regulation 107A;  (b) to a person who has inspected those 
documents and who is entitled to be supplied with a copy of the marked register 
or lists by virtue of being a person to whom regulation 108 applies.”.  (9) In 
regulation 119(3) for “regulation 118(8)” substitute “regulation 
118(8)(b)”.  Immigration, Asylum and 
Nationality Act 2006 (c. 13)4 In the Immigration, Asylum and Nationality Act 
2006, omit section 38 (disclosure of information for security purposes). 
 Statistics and 
Registration Service Act 2007 (c. 18)5 In the Statistics and Registration Service Act 
2007, omit—  (a) section 39(4)(g) (permitted disclosure of 
personal information: disclosure to an Intelligence Service); and  (b) in 
section 67 (general interpretation), the definition of “Intelligence 
Service”.  SCHEDULE 2 Offences where terrorist 
connection to be considered  Common law offences  
                            
                                Murder.
                                Manslaughter.
                                Culpable homicide.
                                Kidnapping.
                                Abduction. Statutory offences  An offence under any of the following sections of the Offences 
against the Person Act 1861 (c. 100)— 
                            
                                
                                    (a) section 4 (soliciting 
murder), (b) section 23 (maliciously administering 
poison  etc so as to 
endanger life or inflict grievous bodily harm), (c) section 28 (causing bodily injury by 
explosives), (d) section 29 (using explosives etc with 
intent to do grievous bodily harm), (e) section 30 (placing explosives with 
intent to do bodily injury), (f) section 64 (making or having gunpowder 
etc with intent to commit or enable any person to commit any felony mentioned in 
the Act). An offence under any of the following sections of the Explosive 
Substances Act 1883 (c. 3)— 
                            
                                
                                    (a) section 2 (causing explosion likely to 
endanger life or property), (b) section 3 (attempt to cause explosion 
or making or keeping explosive with intent to endanger life or 
property), (c) section 4 (making or possession of 
explosive under suspicious circumstances), (d) section 5 (punishment of 
accessories). An offence under section 1 of the Biological Weapons Act 1974 
(c. 6) (restriction on development etc of certain biological agents and toxins 
and of biological weapons). An offence under section 1 of the Taking of Hostages Act 1982 
(c. 28) (hostage-taking). An offence under any of the following sections of the Aviation 
Security Act 1982 (c. 36)— 
                            
                                
                                    (a) section 1 (hijacking), (b) section 2 (destroying, damaging or 
endangering safety of aircraft), (c) section 3 (other acts endangering or 
likely to endanger safety of aircraft), (d) section 4 (offences in relation to 
certain dangerous articles), (e) section 6(2) (inducing or assisting 
commission of offence under section 1, 2 or 3 outside the United 
Kingdom). An offence under any of the following sections of the Nuclear 
Material (Offences) Act 1983 (c. 18)— 
                            
                                
                                    (a) section 1B (offences relating to damage 
to the environment), (b) section 1C (offences of importing or 
exporting etc nuclear materials: extended jurisdiction), (c) section 2 (offences involving 
preparatory acts and threats), so far as relating to an offence specified in 
this Schedule. An offence under any of the following sections of the Aviation 
and Maritime Security Act 1990 (c. 31)— 
                            
                                
                                    (a) section 1 (endangering safety at 
aerodromes), (b) section 9 (hijacking of 
ships), (c) section 10 (seizing or exercising 
control of fixed platforms), (d) section 11 (destroying ships or fixed 
platforms or endangering their safety), (e) section 14(4) (inducing or assisting 
the commission of an offence outside the United Kingdom), so far as relating to 
an offence under section 9 or 11 of that Act. An offence under Part 2 of the Channel Tunnel (Security) Order 
1994 (S.I. 1994/570) (offences 
against the safety of channel tunnel trains and the tunnel system). An offence under any of the following sections of the Chemical 
Weapons Act 1996 
(c. 6)— 
                            
                                
                                    (a) section 2 (use etc of chemical 
weapons), (b) section 11 (premises or equipment for 
producing chemical weapons). An offence under any of the following sections of the 
Anti-Terrorism, Crime and Security Act 2001 (c. 24)— 
                            
                                
                                    (a) section 47 (use etc of nuclear 
weapons), (b) section 114 (hoaxes involving noxious 
substances or things). Ancillary offences  Any ancillary offence in relation to an offence specified in 
this Schedule. Section 39 SCHEDULE 3 Forfeiture: consequential 
amendments  Proceeds of Crime 
(Northern Ireland) Order 1996 (S.I. 1996/1299 (N.I. 9))1 In Article 5(3) of the Proceeds of Crime 
(Northern Ireland) Order 1996, after “section 23” insert “or 23A”.  2 In section 54 of the Terrorism Act 2000, omit 
subsections (7) to (9).  3 In section 58 of that Act, omit subsections (5) 
to (7).  4 In section 119(1) of that Act for “sections 15 to 
23” substitute “sections 15 to 23A”.  5 (1) Schedule 
4 to that Act is amended as follows.  (2) In 
paragraph 1—  (a) in 
the definition of “forfeiture order” after “section 23” insert “or 23A”; 
 (b) after the definition of “forfeited property” 
insert—  ““relevant 
offence” means— (a) an offence under any of sections 15 to 
18,  (b) an offence to which section 23A applies, 
or  (c) in relation to a restraint order, any 
offence specified in Schedule 2 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (offences 
where terrorist connection to be considered).”.  (3) In 
paragraph 2(1)(d) for “section 23(7)” substitute “section 23B(1)”.  (4) In 
paragraph 4(2)(c) for “section 23(7)” substitute “section 23B(1)”.  (5) In 
paragraph 5(1)(a) and (2)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” 
substitute “a relevant offence”.  (6) In 
paragraph 6(4)(a) and (b) for “offences under any of sections 15 to 18” 
substitute “relevant offences”.  (7) Omit the heading before paragraph 9.  (8) In 
paragraph 9(2)—  (a) in 
the opening words, for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a 
relevant offence”;  (b) in 
paragraphs (a), (b) and (c), for “an offence under any of those sections” 
substitute “a relevant offence”.  (9) In 
paragraph 10(1)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a 
relevant offence”.  (10) In 
paragraph 12 after “section 23”, in each place where it occurs, insert “or 
23A”.  (11) In 
paragraph 15—  (a) in 
the definition of “forfeiture order” after “section 23” insert “or 23A”; 
 (b) after the definition of “forfeited property” 
insert—  ““relevant 
offence” means— (a) an offence under any of sections 15 to 
18,  (b) an offence to which section 23A applies, 
or  (c) in relation to a restraint order, any 
offence specified in Schedule 2 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (offences 
where terrorist connection to be considered).”.  (12) In 
paragraph 16(1)(c) and (4)(c) for “section 23(7)” substitute “section 
23B(1)”.  (13) In 
paragraph 18(1)(a) and (2)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” 
substitute “a relevant offence”.  (14) In 
paragraph 19(3A)(a) and (b) for “offences under any of sections 15 to 18” 
substitute “relevant offences”.  (15) Omit the heading before paragraph 23.  (16) In 
paragraph 23(2)—  (a) in 
the opening words for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a 
relevant offence”;  (b) in 
paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) for “an offence under any of those sections” 
substitute “a relevant offence”.  (17) In 
paragraph 24(1)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a 
relevant offence”.  (18) In 
paragraph 26 after “section 23”, in each place where it occurs, insert “or 
23A”.  (19) In 
paragraph 29—  (a) in 
the definition of “forfeiture order” after “section 23” insert “or 23A”; 
 (b) after the definition of “forfeited property” 
insert—  ““relevant 
offence” means— (a) an offence under any of sections 15 to 18, 
or  (b) an offence to which section 23A 
applies.”.  (20) In 
paragraph 30(1)(d) for “section 23(7)” substitute “section 23B(1)”.  (21) In 
paragraph 32(2)(c) for “section 23(7)” substitute “section 23B(1)”.  (22) In 
paragraph 33(1)(a) and (2)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” 
substitute “a relevant offence”.  (23) In 
paragraph 34(4)(a) and (b) for “offences under any of sections 15 to 18” 
substitute “relevant offences”.  (24) In 
paragraph 38(4), in the definition of “prosecutor” for “an offence under any of 
sections 15 to 18” substitute “a relevant offence”.  (25) Omit the heading before paragraph 39.  (26) In 
paragraph 39(2)—  (a) in 
the opening words for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a 
relevant offence”;  (b) in 
paragraphs (a), (b) and (c) for “an offence under any of those sections” 
substitute “a relevant offence”.  (27) In 
paragraph 40(1)(a) for “an offence under any of sections 15 to 18” substitute “a 
relevant offence”.  (28) In 
paragraph 42 after “section 23”, in each place where it occurs, insert “or 
23A”.  (29) In 
paragraph 45, in paragraph (a) of the definition of “forfeiture order” after 
“section 23” insert “or 23A”.  6 In Schedule 8 to that Act, in paragraphs 8(4)(d), 
17(3)(c) and 34(2)(c) after “section 23” insert “or 23A”.  7 (1) The 
Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 is amended as follows.  (2) In 
section 13(3)(d) after “section 23” insert “or 23A”.  (3) In 
section 82(e) after “section 23” insert “, 23A”.  (4) In 
section 97(3)(d) after “section 23” insert “or 23A”.  (5) In 
section 148(e) after “section 23” insert “, 23A”.  (6) In 
section 163(3)(d) after “section 23” insert “or 23A”.  (7) In 
section 230(e) after “section 23” insert “, 23A”. SCHEDULE 4 Notification orders  Introductory1 A “notification order” is an order applying the 
notification requirements of this Part to a person who has been dealt with 
outside the United Kingdom in respect of a corresponding foreign offence. 
 Corresponding foreign 
offences2 (1) A 
“corresponding foreign offence” means an act that—  (a) constituted an offence under the law in force in 
a country outside the United Kingdom, and  (b) corresponds to an offence to which this Part 
applies.  (2) For 
this purpose an act punishable under the law in force in a country outside the 
United Kingdom is regarded as constituting an offence under that law however it 
is described in that law.  (3) An 
act corresponds to an offence to which this Part applies if—  (a) it 
would have constituted an offence to which this Part applies by virtue of 
section 41 if it had been done in any part of the United Kingdom, or  (b) it 
was, or took place in the course of, an act of terrorism or was done for the 
purposes of terrorism.  (4) On 
an application for a notification order the condition in sub-paragraph (3)(a) or 
(b) is to be taken to be met unless—  (a) the 
defendant serves on the applicant, not later than rules of court may provide, a 
notice—  (i) stating that, on the facts as alleged with 
respect to the act concerned, the condition is not in the defendant’s opinion 
met,  (ii) showing the defendant’s grounds for that opinion, 
and  (iii) requiring the applicant to prove that the 
condition is met; or  (b) the 
court permits the defendant to require the applicant to prove that the condition 
is met without service of such a notice.  (5) In 
the application of this paragraph in Scotland, for “defendant” substitute 
“respondent”.  Conditions for making a 
notification order3 (1) The 
conditions for making a notification order in respect of a person are as 
follows.  (2) The 
first condition is that under the law in force in a country outside the United 
Kingdom—  (a) the 
person has been convicted of a corresponding foreign offence and has received in 
respect of the offence a sentence equivalent to a sentence mentioned in section 
45(1)(a), (2)(a) or (3)(a), or  (b) a 
court exercising jurisdiction under that law has, in respect of a corresponding 
foreign offence—  (i) convicted the person or made a finding in 
relation to the person equivalent to a finding mentioned in section 45(1)(b)(ii) 
or (iii), (2)(b)(ii) or (iii) or (3)(b)(ii) or (iii) (finding of insanity or 
disability), and  (ii) made the person subject to an order equivalent to 
a hospital order.  (3) This condition is not met if there was a flagrant 
denial of the person’s right to a fair trial.  (4) The 
second condition is that—  (a) the 
sentence was imposed or order made after the commencement of this Part, 
or  (b) the 
sentence was imposed or order made before the commencement of this Part and 
immediately before that time the person—  (i) was 
imprisoned or detained in pursuance of the sentence or order,  (ii) would have been so imprisoned or detained but for 
being unlawfully at large or otherwise unlawfully absent, lawfully absent on a 
temporary basis or on bail pending an appeal, or  (iii) had been released on licence, or was subject to 
an equivalent form of supervision, having served the whole or part of a sentence 
of imprisonment for the offence.  (5) The 
third condition is that the period for which the notification requirements would 
apply in respect of the offence (in accordance with section 53 as modified by 
paragraph 8(e)) has not expired.  (6) If 
on an application for a notification order it is proved that the conditions in 
sub-paragraphs (2), (4) and (5) are met, the court must make the order. 
 Application for 
notification order4 (1) In 
England and Wales an application for a notification order in respect of a person 
may only be made by a chief officer of police.  (2) An 
application may only be made if—  (a) the 
person resides in the chief officer’s police area, or  (b) the 
chief officer believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, that 
area.  (3) The 
application must be made to the High Court.  5 (1) In 
Scotland an application for a notification order in respect of a person may only 
be made by a chief constable.  (2) An 
application may only be made if—  (a) the 
person resides in the area of the chief constable’s police force, or  (b) the 
chief constable believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, that 
area.  (3) The 
application must be made to the Court of Session.  6 (1) In 
Northern Ireland an application for a notification order in respect of a person 
may only be made by the Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern 
Ireland.  (2) An 
application may only be made if—  (a) the 
person resides in Northern Ireland, or  (b) the 
Chief Constable believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, 
Northern Ireland.  (3) The 
application must be made to the High Court.  Effect of notification 
order7 The effect of a notification order is that the 
notification requirements of this Part apply to the person in respect of whom it 
is made.  Adaptation of provisions 
of this Part in relation to foreign proceedings8 The provisions of this Part have effect with the 
following adaptations in relation to foreign proceedings and cases where the 
notification requirements apply because a notification order has been 
made—  (a) in 
section 61(1) (references to dealing with an offence) for “being sentenced, or 
made subject to a hospital order” substitute “being made subject by the foreign 
court to a sentence or order within paragraph 3(2)(a) or (b) of Schedule 
4”;  (b) in 
section 61(2) (references to time when person dealt with for an offence) for 
paragraphs (a) to (c) substitute “by the foreign court of first 
instance”;  (c) for 
the purposes of section 47 (initial notification) the period within which 
notification is to be made begins with the date of service of the notification 
order;  (d) in 
section 51 (meaning of “local police area”) the reference in subsection (1)(c) 
to the court of trial shall be read as a reference to the court by which the 
notification order was made;  (e) in 
section 53 (period for which notification requirements apply) a reference to a 
sentence or order of any description is to be read as a reference to an 
equivalent sentence or order of the foreign court. SCHEDULE 5 Foreign travel restriction 
orders  Introductory1 A foreign travel restriction order is an order 
prohibiting the person to whom it applies from doing whichever of the following 
is specified in the order—  (a) travelling to a country outside the United 
Kingdom named or described in the order;  (b) travelling to any country outside the United 
Kingdom other than a country named or described in the order;  (c) travelling to any country outside the United 
Kingdom.  Conditions for making a 
foreign travel restriction order2 (1) The 
conditions for making a foreign travel restriction order in respect of a person 
are as follows.  (2) The 
first condition is that the notification requirements apply to the 
person.  (3) The 
second condition is that the person’s behaviour since the person was dealt with 
for the offence by virtue of which those requirements apply makes it necessary 
for a foreign travel restriction order to be made to prevent the person from 
taking part in terrorism activity outside the United Kingdom.  (4) If 
the person was dealt with for the offence before the commencement of this Part, 
the condition in sub-paragraph (3) is not met unless the person has acted in 
that way since the commencement of this Part.  (5) If 
on an application for a foreign travel restriction order the court is satisfied 
that the conditions in sub-paragraphs (2) and (3) are met, it may make a foreign 
travel restriction order.  Application for foreign 
travel restriction order3 (1) In 
England and Wales an application for a foreign travel restriction order in 
respect of a person may only be made by a chief officer of police.  (2) An 
application may only be made if—  (a) the 
person resides in the chief officer’s police area, or  (b) the 
chief officer believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, that 
area.  (3) The 
application must be made by complaint to a magistrates' court whose commission 
area includes any part of the chief officer’s police area.  4 (1) In 
Scotland an application for a foreign travel restriction order in respect of a 
person may only be made by a chief constable.  (2) An 
application may only be made if—  (a) the 
person resides in the area of the chief constable’s police force, or  (b) the 
chief constable believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, that 
area.  (3) The 
application must be made by summary application to a sheriff within whose 
sheriffdom any part of the area of the chief constable’s police force 
lies.  (4) A 
record of evidence is to be kept on any such summary application.  (5) Where the sheriff makes a foreign travel 
restriction order, the clerk of the court must give a copy of the order to the 
respondent or send a copy to the respondent by registered post or the recorded 
delivery service.  (6) An 
acknowledgement or certificate of delivery issued by the Post Office is 
sufficient evidence of the delivery of the copy on the day specified in the 
acknowledgement or certificate.  5 (1) In 
Northern Ireland an application for a foreign travel restriction order in 
respect of a person may only be made by the Chief Constable of the Police 
Service of Northern Ireland.  (2) An 
application may only be made if—  (a) the 
person resides in Northern Ireland, or  (b) the 
Chief Constable believes that the person is in, or is intending to come to, 
Northern Ireland.  (3) The 
application must be made by complaint under Part 8 of the Magistrates' Courts 
(Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)) to a court of 
summary jurisdiction.  Provisions of a foreign 
travel restriction order6 (1) A foreign 
travel restriction order may prohibit the person to whom it applies—  (a) from travelling to any country outside the United 
Kingdom named or described in the order; or  (b) from travelling to any country outside the United 
Kingdom other than a country named or described in the order; or  (c) from travelling to any country outside the United 
Kingdom.  (2) The 
order must only impose such prohibitions as are necessary for the purpose of 
preventing the person from taking part in terrorism activity outside the United 
Kingdom.  (3) A 
foreign travel restriction order containing a prohibition within sub-paragraph 
(1)(c) must require the person to whom it applies to surrender all that person’s 
passports, at a police station specified in the order—  (a) on 
or before the date when the prohibition takes effect, or  (b) within a period specified in the order. 
 (4) Any 
passports surrendered must be returned as soon as reasonably practicable after 
the person ceases to be subject to a foreign travel restriction order containing 
such a prohibition.  Duration of foreign 
travel restriction order7 (1) A foreign 
travel restriction order has effect for a fixed period of not more than 6 
months.  (2) The 
period must be specified in the order.  (3) A 
foreign travel restriction order ceases to have effect if a court (whether the 
same or another court) makes another foreign travel restriction order in 
relation to the person to whom the earlier order applies.  Variation, renewal or 
discharge of order8 (1) In 
England and Wales an application for an order varying, renewing or discharging a 
foreign travel restriction order may be made by—  (a) the 
person subject to the order;  (b) the 
chief officer of police on whose application the order was made;  (c) the 
chief officer of police for the area in which the person subject to the order 
resides; or  (d) a 
chief officer of police who believes that the person subject to the order is in, 
or is intending to come to, the officer’s police area.  (2) The 
application must be made by complaint to—  (a) a 
magistrates' court for the same area as the court that made the order, 
 (b) a 
magistrates' court for the area in which the person subject to the order 
resides, or  (c) where the application is made by a chief officer 
of police, any magistrates' court whose commission area includes any part of 
that chief officer’s police area.  (3) On 
an application under this paragraph the court may make such order varying, 
renewing or discharging the foreign travel restriction order as it considers 
appropriate.  (4) Before doing so it must hear the person making 
the application and (if they wish to be heard) the other persons mentioned in 
sub-paragraph (1).  9 (1) In 
Scotland an application for an order varying, renewing or discharging a foreign 
travel restriction order may be made by—  (a) the 
person subject to the order;  (b) the 
chief constable on whose application the order was made;  (c) the 
chief constable in the area of whose police force the person subject to the 
order resides; or  (d) a 
chief constable who believes that the person subject to the order is in, or is 
intending to come to, the area of that chief constable’s police force. 
 (2) The 
application must be made by summary application—  (a) to 
the sheriff who made the order, or  (b) to 
a sheriff—  (i) within whose sheriffdom the person subject to the 
order resides, or  (ii) where the application is made by a chief 
constable, within whose sheriffdom any part of the area of the chief constable’s 
police force lies.  (3) A 
record of evidence is to be kept on any summary application under this 
paragraph.  (4) On 
an application under this paragraph the sheriff may make such order varying, 
renewing or discharging the foreign travel restriction order as the sheriff 
considers appropriate.  (5) Before doing so the sheriff must hear the person 
making the application and (if they wish to be heard) the other persons 
mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).  10 (1) In 
Northern Ireland an application for an order varying, renewing or discharging a 
foreign travel restriction order may be made by—  (a) the 
person subject to the order; or  (b) the 
Chief Constable of the Police Service of Northern Ireland.  (2) The 
application must be made by complaint under Part 8 of the Magistrates' Courts 
(Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)) to a court of summary 
jurisdiction for the petty sessions district which includes the area where the 
person subject to the order resides.  (3) On 
an application under this paragraph the court may make such order varying, 
renewing or discharging the foreign travel restriction order as it considers 
appropriate.  (4) It 
may do so only after hearing the person making the application and (if they wish 
to be heard) the other person mentioned in sub-paragraph (1).  Provisions of renewed or 
varied order11 (1) A foreign 
travel restriction order may be renewed, or varied so as to impose additional 
prohibitions, but only if it is necessary to do so for the purpose of preventing 
the person subject to the order from taking part in terrorism activities outside 
the United Kingdom.  (2) Any 
renewed or varied order must contain only the prohibitions necessary for that 
purpose.  Appeals12 (1) In 
England and Wales—  (a) a 
person against whom a foreign travel restriction order is made may appeal 
against the making of the order;  (b) a 
person subject to a foreign travel restriction order may appeal against— 
 (i) an 
order under paragraph 8 varying or renewing the order, or  (ii) a 
refusal to make an order under that paragraph varying or discharging the 
order.  (2) The 
appeal lies to the Crown Court.  (3) On 
an appeal under this paragraph the court may make—  (a) such orders as it considers necessary to give 
effect to its determination of the appeal, and  (b) such incidental and consequential orders as 
appear to it to be just.  13 (1) In 
Scotland an interlocutor of the sheriff granting or refusing a foreign travel 
restriction order, or an order under paragraph 9 (variation, renewal or 
discharge of foreign travel restriction order), is appealable.  (2) Where an appeal is taken against such an 
interlocutor, the interlocutor continues in effect pending disposal of the 
appeal.  14 (1) In 
Northern Ireland—  (a) a 
person against whom a foreign travel restriction order is made may appeal 
against the making of the order;  (b) a 
person subject to a foreign travel restriction order may appeal against— 
 (i) an 
order under paragraph 10 varying or renewing the order, or  (ii) a 
refusal to make an order under that paragraph varying or discharging the 
order.  (2) The 
appeal lies to the county court.  (3) On 
an appeal under this paragraph the court may make—  (a) such orders as it considers necessary to give 
effect to its determination of the appeal, and  (b) such incidental and consequential orders as 
appear to it to be just.  Breach of foreign travel 
restriction order an offence15 (1) A person 
commits a offence who, without reasonable excuse—  (a) does anything they are prohibited from doing by a 
foreign travel restriction order, or  (b) fails to comply with a requirement imposed on 
them by such an order.  (2) A 
person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable—  (a) on 
summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or a fine 
not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;  (b) on 
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years or a 
fine or both.  (3) In 
the application of sub-paragraph (2)(a)—  (a) in 
England and Wales, in relation to an offence committed before the commencement 
of section 154(1) of the Criminal Justice Act 2003 (c. 44), 
or  (b) in 
Northern Ireland,  for “12 months” substitute “6 months”. (4) Where a person is convicted of an offence under 
this paragraph, it is not open to the court by or before which they are 
convicted—  (a) in 
England and Wales or Northern Ireland, to make an order for conditional 
discharge in respect of the offence;  (b) in 
Scotland, to make a probation order in respect of the offence.  Meaning of “terrorism 
activity”16 In this Schedule “terrorism activity” means 
anything that—  (a) if 
done in any part of the United Kingdom, would constitute an offence to which 
this Part applies by virtue of section 41, or  (b) is, 
or takes place in the course of, an act of terrorism or is for the purposes of 
terrorism. SCHEDULE 6 Notification requirements: 
application to service offences  Service offences to 
which this Part applies: terrorism offences1 This Part applies to a service offence as 
respects which the corresponding civil offence is an offence within section 
41(1) or (2) (offences to which this Part applies: terrorism offences). 
 Service offences to 
which this Part applies: offences having a terrorist connection2 (1) This Part 
applies to a service offence as to which the service court dealing with the 
offence has determined in accordance with section 32 that the offence has a 
terrorist connection.  (2) A 
person to whom the notification requirements apply by virtue of such a 
determination may appeal against it to the same court, and subject to the same 
conditions, as an appeal against sentence.  (3) If 
the determination is set aside on appeal, the notification requirements are 
treated as never having applied to that person in respect of the offence. 
 Service offences dealt 
with before commencement3 (1) This Part 
applies to a person dealt with for a service offence before the commencement of 
this Part only if—  (a) the 
corresponding civil offence is on the commencement of this Part within section 
41(1) or (2) (offences to which this Part applies: terrorism offences), 
and  (b) immediately before the commencement of this Part 
the person—  (i) is 
imprisoned or detained in pursuance of the sentence or other order made in 
respect of the offence,  (ii) would be so imprisoned or detained but for being 
unlawfully at large, absent without leave, on temporary leave or leave of 
absence, or released from custody (or on bail) pending an appeal, or  (iii) is on licence having served the custodial part of 
a sentence of imprisonment in respect of the offence.  (2) In 
relation to a person dealt with for a service offence before the commencement of 
this Part, any reference in this Schedule to a sentence, order or finding under 
a specified statutory provision includes a sentence or order under any 
corresponding earlier statutory provision.  Service offences: 
persons to whom notification requirements apply4 The notification requirements apply to a person 
who—  (a) is 
aged 16 or over at the time of being dealt with for a service offence to which 
this Part applies, and  (b) is 
made subject in respect of the offence to a sentence or order within paragraph 5 
(sentences or orders triggering notification requirements).  Service offences: 
sentences or orders triggering notification requirements5 (1) The 
notification requirements apply to a person who—  (a) has 
been convicted of a service offence to which this Part applies and sentenced in 
respect of the offence to—  (i) imprisonment or custody for life,  (ii) imprisonment or custodial order for a term of 12 
months or more,  (iii) imprisonment or detention in a young offender 
institution for public protection under section 225 of the Criminal Justice Act 
2003 (c. 
44),  (iv) detention for life or for a period of 12 months 
or more under section 71A(4) of the Army Act 1955 or the Air Force Act 1955, 
section 43A(4) of the Naval Discipline Act 1957 or section 209 of the Armed 
Forces Act 2006 (c. 
52),  (v) detention and training (and supervision) under 
section 211 of that Act, where the term of the order under that section is 12 
months or more,  (vi) detention for public protection under section 226 
of the Criminal Justice Act 2003, or  (vii) detention during Her Majesty’s pleasure; 
or  (b) has 
been—  (i) convicted of a service offence to which this Part 
applies carrying a maximum term of imprisonment of 12 months or more, 
 (ii) found not guilty by reason of insanity of such an 
offence, or  (iii) found to be unfit to stand trial and to have done 
the act charged against them in respect of such an offence,  and made subject in respect of the offence to a 
hospital order. (2) The 
reference in sub-paragraph (1)(b)(i) to an offence carrying a maximum term of 
imprisonment of 12 months or more—  (a) is 
to an offence carrying such a maximum term in the case of a person who has 
attained the age of 18 (or 21, as respects any time before the coming into force 
of section 61 of the Criminal Justice and Court Services Act 2000 (c. 43)), 
and  (b) includes an offence carrying in the case of such 
a person a maximum term of life imprisonment and an offence for which in the 
case of such a person the sentence is fixed by law as life imprisonment. 
 Service offences: power 
to amend specified terms or periods of imprisonment or detention6 (1) The 
Secretary of State may by order amend the provisions of paragraph 5 referring to 
a specified term or period of imprisonment or detention.  (2) An 
order reducing a specified term or period has effect only in relation to persons 
dealt with after the order comes into force.  (3) Where an order increases a specified term or 
period—  (a) it 
has effect in relation to persons dealt with at any time, whether before or 
after the order comes into force, and  (b) a 
person who would not have been subject to the notification requirements if the 
order had been in force when the offence was dealt with (and who is not 
otherwise subject to those requirements) ceases to be subject to the 
requirements when the order comes into force.  (4) An 
order under this paragraph is subject to affirmative resolution 
procedure.  Service offences: period 
for which notification requirements apply7 (1) The 
period for which the notification requirements apply is—  (a) 30 
years in the case of a person who—  (i) is 
aged 18 or over at the time of conviction for the service offence, and 
 (ii) receives in respect of the offence a sentence 
within sub-paragraph (2);  (b) 15 
years in the case of a person who—  (i) is 
aged 18 or over at the time of conviction for the service offence, and 
 (ii) receives in respect of the offence a sentence 
within sub-paragraph (3);  (c) 10 
years in any other case.  (2) The 
sentences where a 30 year period applies are—  (a) imprisonment or custody for life,  (b) imprisonment or a custodial order for a term of 
10 years or more,  (c) imprisonment or detention in a young offender 
institution for public protection under section 225 of the Criminal Justice Act 
2003 (c. 
44),  (d) detention during Her Majesty’s pleasure. 
 (3) The 
sentences where a 15 year period applies are imprisonment or a custodial order 
for a term of 5 years or more but less than 10 years.  (4) The 
period begins with the day on which the person is dealt with for the 
offence.  (5) If 
a person who is the subject of a finding within paragraph 5(1)(b)(iii) (finding 
of unfitness to stand trial  etc) is subsequently tried for the offence, the period 
resulting from that finding ends—  (a) if 
the person is acquitted, at the conclusion of the trial;  (b) if 
the person is convicted, when the person is again dealt with in respect of the 
offence.  (6) For 
the purposes of determining the length of the period—  (a) a 
person who has been sentenced in respect of two or more terrorism offences to 
consecutive terms of imprisonment is treated as if sentenced, in respect of each 
of the offences, to a term of imprisonment equal to the aggregate of the terms; 
and  (b) a 
person who has been sentenced in respect of two or more such offences to 
concurrent terms of imprisonment (X and Y) that overlap for a period (Z) is 
treated as if sentenced, in respect of each of the offences, to a term of 
imprisonment equal to X plus Y minus Z.  (7) In 
determining whether the period has expired, there shall be disregarded any 
period when the person was—  (a) remanded in or committed to custody by an order 
of a court,  (b) in 
service custody pursuant to a decision of a court or judge advocate (or an order 
of a commanding officer under section 110 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 (c. 
52)),  (c) serving a sentence of imprisonment or 
detention,  (d) detained in a hospital, or  (e) detained under the Immigration Acts.  (8) In 
sub-paragraph (7)(b)—  (a) “service custody” includes, in relation to times 
before the commencement of the relevant provisions of the Armed Forces Act 2006, 
military custody, air-force custody and naval custody;  (b) “judge advocate” includes, in relation to such 
times, judicial officer;  (c) the 
reference to section 110 of the Armed Forces Act 2006 includes, in relation to 
times before the commencement of that section, a reference to—  (i) section 75K of the Army Act 1955 (3 & 4  Eliz. 2 c. 18) or the Air Force Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 
2 c. 19);  (ii) section 47L of the Naval Discipline Act 1957 (c. 
53).  Modifications in 
relation to service offences etc8 (1) In the 
following provisions, references to a person committed to custody by an order of 
a court include a person in service custody pursuant to a decision of a court or 
judge advocate (or an order of a commanding officer under section 110 of the 
Armed Forces Act 2006)—  (a) section 47(4) (initial notification);  (b) section 48(8) (notification of changes); 
 (c) section 49(2) (periodic re-notification); 
 (d) section 53(7) (period for which requirements 
apply);  (e) section 56(3) (notification on return after 
absence from  UK).  (2) In 
section 48(4) (notification on release from custody etc) the reference to 
custody pursuant to an order of a court includes service custody pursuant to a 
decision of a court or judge advocate (or an order of a commanding officer under 
section 110 of the Armed Forces Act 2006).  (3) Paragraph 7(8) (meaning of “service custody” and 
“judge advocate” etc) applies for the purposes of this paragraph.  9 In the application of section 47(6) (initial 
notification: person dealt with before commencement) in relation to a service 
offence, the reference to a person being on bail pending an appeal includes a 
person released from custody pending an appeal.  10 Where in relation to a service offence the court 
of trial (as defined by subsection (2) of section 51 (meaning of “local police 
area”)) was situated outside the United Kingdom, that section has effect as if 
subsection (1)(c) were omitted.  11 References in this Part to a sentence of 
detention do not include—  (a) a 
sentence of service detention (as defined by section 374 of the Armed Forces Act 
2006 (c. 52)), 
or  (b) a 
corresponding sentence passed under (or by virtue of) the Army Act 1955 (3 & 
4 Eliz. 2 c. 18), the Air Force Act 1955 (3 & 4 Eliz. 2 c. 19) or the Naval 
Discipline Act 1957 (c. 53).  12 The following provisions do not apply in relation 
to service offences—  (a) section 43 (offences dealt with before 
commencement);  (b) section 45 (sentences or orders triggering 
notification requirements);  (c) section 53 (period for which requirements 
apply).  Application of power to 
make transitional modifications etc13 An order under subsection (4) of section 380 of 
the Armed Forces Act 2006 (power to make transitional modifications etc) which 
makes provision of the kind mentioned in subsection (6) of that section may 
provide for paragraph 5(1)(a) or paragraph 7(2) or (3) above to have effect with 
such modifications (relating to custodial punishments specified in the order) as 
are so specified. SCHEDULE 7 Terrorist financing and money 
laundering  Part 
1 Conditions for giving a 
direction  Conditions for 
giving a direction1 (1) The 
Treasury may give a direction under this Schedule if one or more of the 
following conditions is met in relation to a country.  (2) The 
first condition is that the Financial Action Task Force has advised that 
measures should be taken in relation to the country because of the risk of 
terrorist financing or money laundering activities being carried on—  (a) in 
the country,  (b) by 
the government of the country, or  (c) by 
persons resident or incorporated in the country.  (3) The 
second condition is that the Treasury reasonably believe that there is a risk 
that terrorist financing or money laundering activities are being carried 
on—  (a) in 
the country,  (b) by 
the government of the country, or  (c) by 
persons resident or incorporated in the country,  and that this poses a significant risk to the 
national interests of the United Kingdom. (4) The 
third condition is that the Treasury reasonably believe that—  (a) the 
development or production of nuclear, radiological, biological or chemical 
weapons in the country, or  (b) the 
doing in the country of anything that facilitates the development or production 
of any such weapons,  poses a significant risk to the national interests 
of the United Kingdom. (5) The 
power to give a direction is not exercisable in relation to an  EEA state.  Main 
definitions2 (1) “Terrorist financing” means—  (a) the 
use of funds, or the making available of funds, for the purposes of terrorism, 
or  (b) the 
acquisition, possession, concealment, conversion or transfer of funds that are 
(directly or indirectly) to be used or made available for those purposes. 
 (2) “Money laundering” means an act which falls 
within section 340(11) of the Proceeds of Crime Act 2002 (c. 
29).  (3) “Nuclear weapon” includes a nuclear explosive 
device that is not intended for use as a weapon.  (4) “Radiological weapon” means a device designed to 
cause destruction, damage or injury by means of the radiation produced by the 
decay of radioactive material.  (5) “Chemical weapon” means a chemical weapon as 
defined by section 1(1) of the Chemical Weapons Act 1996 (c. 6), other 
than one whose intended use is only for permitted purposes (as defined by 
section 1(3) of that Act).  (6) “Biological weapon” means anything within section 
1(1)(a) or (b) of the Biological Weapons Act 1974 (c. 6).  Part 
2 Persons to whom a 
direction may be given  Persons to whom 
a direction may be given3 (1) A 
direction under this Schedule may be given to—  (a) a 
particular person operating in the financial sector,  (b) any 
description of persons operating in that sector, or  (c) all 
persons operating in that sector.  (2) In 
this Schedule “relevant person”, in relation to a direction, means any of the 
persons to whom the direction is given.  (3) A 
direction may make different provision in relation to different descriptions of 
relevant person.  Persons operating in 
the financial sector4 (1) Any 
reference in this Schedule to a person operating in the financial sector is to a 
credit or financial institution that—  (a) is 
a United Kingdom person, or  (b) is 
acting in the course of a business carried on by it in the United 
Kingdom.  (2) This is subject to the exceptions in paragraph 
6.  Meaning of “credit 
institution” and “financial institution”5 (1) “Credit 
institution” means—  (a) a 
credit institution as defined in Article 4(1)(a) of the banking consolidation 
directive, or  (b) a 
branch (within the meaning of Article 4(3) of that directive) located in an EEA 
state of—  (i) an 
institution within sub-paragraph (a), or  (ii) an 
equivalent institution whose head office is located in a non-EEA state, 
 when it accepts deposits or other repayable funds 
from the public or grants credits for its own account (within the meaning of the 
banking consolidation directive). (2) “Financial institution” means—  (a) an 
undertaking, including a money service business, when it carries out one or more 
of the activities listed in points 2 to 12 and 14 of Annex 1 to the banking 
consolidation directive, other than—  (i) a 
credit institution;  (ii) an 
undertaking whose only listed activity is trading for own account in one or more 
of the products listed in point 7 of Annex 1 to the banking consolidation 
directive where the undertaking does not have a customer,  and for this purpose “customer” means a person who 
is not a member of the same group as the undertaking; (b) an 
insurance company duly authorised in accordance with the life assurance 
consolidation directive, when it carries out activities covered by that 
directive;  (c) a 
person whose regular occupation or business is the provision to other persons of 
an investment service or the performance of an investment activity on a 
professional basis, when providing or performing investment services or 
activities (within the meaning of the markets in financial instruments 
directive), other than a person falling within Article 2 of that 
directive;  (d) a 
collective investment undertaking, when marketing or otherwise offering its 
units or shares;  (e) an 
insurance intermediary as defined in Article 2(5) of Directive 2002/92/EC of 
the European Parliament and of the Council of 9th December 2002 on insurance 
mediation (other than a tied insurance intermediary as mentioned in Article 2(7) 
of that Directive), when it acts in respect of contracts of long-term insurance 
within the meaning given by article 3(1) of, and Part II of Schedule 1 to, the 
Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001 
(S.I. 2001/544);  (f) a 
branch located in an EEA state of—  (i) a 
person referred to in any of paragraphs (a) to (e), or  (ii) a 
person equivalent to a person within any of those paragraphs whose head office 
is located in a non-EEA state,  when carrying out any activity mentioned in that 
paragraph; (g) an 
insurance company (as defined by section 1165(3) of the Companies Act 2006 (c. 
46));  (h) the 
National Savings Bank;  (i) the 
Director of Savings, when money is raised under the auspices of the Director 
under the National Loans Act 1968 (c. 13).  Exceptions6 (1) For the 
purposes of this Schedule the following are not regarded as persons operating in 
the financial sector when carrying out any of the following activities— 
 (a) a 
society registered under the Industrial and Provident Societies Act 1965 (c. 
12), when it—  (i) issues withdrawable share capital within the 
limit set by section 6 of that Act (maximum shareholding in society); or 
 (ii) accepts deposits from the public within the limit 
set by section 7(3) of that Act (carrying on of banking by societies); 
 (b) a 
society registered under the Industrial and Provident Societies Act (Northern 
Ireland) 1969 (c. 24 (N.I.)), when it—  (i) issues withdrawable share capital within the 
limit set by section 6 of that Act (maximum shareholding in society); or 
 (ii) accepts deposits from the public within the limit 
set by section 7(3) of that Act (carrying on of banking by societies); 
 (c) a 
person within any of paragraphs 1 to 23 or 25 to 51 of the Schedule to the 
Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Exemption) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/1201), 
when carrying out an activity in respect of which the person is exempt; 
 (d) a 
person who was an exempted person for the purposes of section 45 of the 
Financial Services Act 1986 (c. 60) (miscellaneous exemptions) immediately 
before its repeal, when exercising the functions specified in that 
section.  (2) A 
person who falls within the definition of “credit institution” or “financial 
institution” solely as a result of engaging in financial activity on an 
occasional or very limited basis is not regarded for the purposes of this 
Schedule as operating in the financial sector.  (3) For 
the purposes of sub-paragraph (2) a person is regarded as engaging in a 
financial activity on an occasional or very limited basis if—  (a) the 
person’s total annual turnover in respect of the financial activity does not 
exceed £64,000,  (b) the 
financial activity is limited in relation to any customer to no more than one 
transaction exceeding 1,000 euro (whether the transaction is carried out in a 
single operation or a series of operations which appear to be linked), 
 (c) the 
financial activity does not exceed 5% of the person’s total annual 
turnover,  (d) the 
financial activity is ancillary and directly related to the person’s main 
activity,  (e) the 
financial activity is not the transmission or remittance of money (or any 
representation of monetary value) by any means,  (f) the 
person’s main activity is not that of a credit or financial institution, 
and  (g) the 
financial activity is provided only to customers of the person’s main 
activity.  Interpretation of 
this Part7 In this Part of this Schedule—  
                            
                                “the banking consolidation directive” 
means Directive 2006/48/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 14th 
June 2006 relating to the taking up and pursuit of the business of credit 
institutions;
                                “the life assurance consolidation 
directive” means Directive 2002/83/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 5th 
November 2002 concerning life assurance;
                                “the markets in financial instruments 
directive” means Directive 2004/39/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 12th 
April 2004 on markets in financial instruments. Power to 
amend8 (1) The 
Treasury may by order amend paragraphs 4 to 7.  (2) Any 
such order is subject to affirmative resolution procedure.  Part 
3 Requirements that may 
be imposed by a direction  Requirements 
that may be imposed by a direction9 (1) A 
direction under this Schedule may impose requirements in relation to 
transactions or business relationships with—  (a) a 
person carrying on business in the country;  (b) the 
government of the country;  (c) a 
person resident or incorporated in the country.  (2) The 
direction may impose requirements in relation to—  (a) a 
particular person within sub-paragraph (1),  (b) any 
description of persons within that sub-paragraph, or  (c) all 
persons within that sub-paragraph.  (3) In 
this Schedule “designated person”, in relation to a direction, means any of the 
persons in relation to whom the direction is given.  (4) The 
kinds of requirement that may be imposed by a direction under this Schedule are 
specified in—  
                            
                                paragraph 10 (customer due 
diligence);
                                paragraph 11 (ongoing monitoring);
                                paragraph 12 (systematic 
reporting);
                                paragraph 13 (limiting or ceasing 
business). (5) A 
direction may make different provision—  (a) in 
relation to different descriptions of designated person, and  (b) in 
relation to different descriptions of transaction or business 
relationship.  (6) The 
requirements imposed by a direction must be proportionate having regard to the 
advice mentioned in paragraph 1(2) or, as the case may be, the risk mentioned in 
paragraph 1(3) or (4) to the national interests of the United Kingdom. 
 Customer due 
diligence10 (1) A 
direction may require a relevant person to undertake enhanced customer due 
diligence measures—  (a) before entering into a transaction or business 
relationship with a designated person, and  (b) during a business relationship with such a 
person.  (2) The 
direction may do either or both of the following—  (a) impose a general obligation to undertake enhanced 
customer due diligence measures;  (b) require a relevant person to undertake specific 
measures identified or described in the direction.  (3) “Customer due diligence measures” means measures 
to—  (a) establish the identity of the designated 
person,  (b) obtain information about—  (i) the 
designated person and their business, and  (ii) the source of their funds, and  (c) assess the risk of the designated person being 
involved in relevant activities.  (4) In 
sub-paragraph (3)(c) “relevant activities” means—  (a) terrorist financing;  (b) money laundering; or  (c) the 
development or production of nuclear, radiological, biological or chemical 
weapons or the facilitation of that development or production.  (5) A 
direction may not impose requirements of a kind mentioned in this paragraph on a 
person who is regarded as operating in the financial sector by virtue only of 
paragraph 5(2)(g) (certain insurance companies).  Ongoing 
monitoring11 (1) A 
direction may require a relevant person to undertake enhanced ongoing monitoring 
of any business relationship with a designated person.  (2) The 
direction may do either or both of the following—  (a) impose a general obligation to undertake enhanced 
ongoing monitoring;  (b) require a relevant person to undertake specific 
measures identified or described in the direction.  (3) “Ongoing monitoring” of a business relationship 
means—  (a) keeping up to date information and documents 
obtained for the purposes of customer due diligence measures, and  (b) scrutinising transactions undertaken during the 
course of the relationship (and, where appropriate, the source of funds for 
those transactions) to ascertain whether the transactions are consistent with 
the relevant person’s knowledge of the designated person and their 
business.  (4) A 
direction may not impose requirements of a kind mentioned in this paragraph on a 
person who is regarded as operating in the financial sector by virtue only of 
paragraph 5(2)(g) (certain insurance companies).  Systematic 
reporting12 (1) A 
direction may require a relevant person to provide such information and 
documents as may be specified in the direction relating to transactions and 
business relationships with designated persons.  (2) A 
direction imposing such a requirement must specify how the direction is to be 
complied with, including—  (a) the 
person to whom the information and documents are to be provided, and  (b) the 
period within which, or intervals at which, information and documents are to be 
provided.  (3) The 
power conferred by this paragraph is not exercisable in relation to information 
or documents in respect of which a claim to legal professional privilege (in 
Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be maintained in legal 
proceedings.  (4) The 
exercise of the power conferred by this paragraph and the provision of 
information under it is not otherwise subject to any restriction on the 
disclosure of information, whether imposed by statute or otherwise.  Limiting or ceasing 
business13 A direction may require a relevant person not to 
enter into or continue to participate in—  (a) a 
specified transaction or business relationship with a designated person, 
 (b) a 
specified description of transactions or business relationships with a 
designated person, or  (c) any 
transaction or business relationship with a designated person.  Part 
4 Procedural provisions 
and licensing  General 
directions to be given by order14 (1) A 
direction given to—  (a) a 
description of persons operating in the financial sector, or  (b) all 
persons operating in that sector,  must be contained in an order made by the 
Treasury. (2) If 
the order contains requirements of a kind mentioned in paragraph 13 (limiting or 
ceasing business)—  (a) it 
must be laid before Parliament after being made, and  (b) if 
not approved by a resolution of each House of Parliament before the end of 28 
days beginning with the day on which it is made, it ceases to have effect at the 
end of that period.  In calculating the period of 28 days, no account is 
to be taken of any time during which Parliament is dissolved or prorogued or 
during which both Houses are adjourned for more than 4 days. (3) An 
order’s ceasing to have effect in accordance with sub-paragraph (2) does not 
affect anything done under the order.  (4) An 
order to which sub-paragraph (2) does not apply is subject to negative 
resolution procedure.  (5) If 
apart from this sub-paragraph an order under this paragraph would be treated for 
the purposes of the standing orders of either House of Parliament as a hybrid 
instrument, it is to proceed in that House as if it were not such an 
instrument.  Specific directions: 
notification and duration of directions15 (1) This 
paragraph applies in relation to a direction given to a particular 
person.  (2) The 
Treasury must give notice of the direction to the person.  (3) The 
direction (if not previously revoked and whether or not varied) ceases to have 
effect at the end of the period of one year beginning with the day on which the 
direction is given.  This is without prejudice to the giving of a further 
direction. (4) The 
Treasury may vary or revoke the direction at any time.  (5) Where the direction is varied or ceases to have 
effect (whether on revocation or otherwise), the Treasury must give notice of 
that fact to the person.  General directions: 
publication and duration of directions16 (1) This 
paragraph applies to an order containing directions under paragraph 14 (general 
directions given by order).  (2) The 
Treasury must take such steps as they consider appropriate to publicise the 
making of the order.  (3) An 
order—  (a) revoking the order, or  (b) varying the order so as to make its provisions 
less onerous,  is subject to negative resolution procedure. (4) The 
order (if not previously revoked and whether or not varied) ceases to have 
effect at the end of the period of one year beginning with the day on which it 
was made.  This is without prejudice to the making of a further 
order. (5) Where the order is varied or ceases to have 
effect (whether on revocation or otherwise), the Treasury must take such steps 
as they consider appropriate to publicise that fact.  Directions limiting 
or ceasing business: exemption by licence17 (1) The 
following provisions apply where a direction contains requirements of a kind 
mentioned in paragraph 13 (limiting or ceasing business).  (2) The 
Treasury may grant a licence to exempt acts specified in the licence from those 
requirements.  (3) A 
licence may be—  (a) general or granted to a description of persons or 
to a particular person;  (b) subject to conditions;  (c) of 
indefinite duration or subject to an expiry date.  (4) The 
Treasury may vary or revoke a licence at any time.  (5) On 
the grant, variation or revocation of a licence, the Treasury must—  (a) in 
the case of a licence granted to a particular person, give notice of the grant, 
variation or revocation to that person;  (b) in 
the case of a general licence or a licence granted to a description of persons, 
take such steps as the Treasury consider appropriate to publicise the grant, 
variation or revocation of the licence.  Part 
5 Enforcement: 
information powers  Enforcement 
authorities and officers18 (1) In this 
Schedule “enforcement authority” means—  (a) the 
Financial Services Authority (“the FSA”),  (b) the 
Commissioners for Her Majesty’s Revenue and Customs (“HMRC”),  (c) the 
Office of Fair Trading (“the  OFT”), or  (d) in 
relation to credit unions in Northern Ireland, the Department of Enterprise, 
Trade and Investment in Northern Ireland (“DETINI”).  (2) In 
this Part of this Schedule “enforcement officer” means—  (a) an 
officer of the FSA, including a member of the staff or an agent of the 
FSA,  (b) an 
officer of Revenue and Customs,  (c) an 
officer of the OFT,  (d) an 
officer of DETINI acting for the purposes of its functions under this Schedule 
in relation to credit unions in Northern Ireland, or  (e) a 
local enforcement officer.  (3) A 
“local enforcement officer” means—  (a) in 
Great Britain, an officer of a local weights and measures authority;  (b) in 
Northern Ireland, an officer of DETINI acting pursuant to arrangements made with 
the OFT for the purposes of this Schedule.  Power to require 
information or documents19 (1) An 
enforcement officer may by notice to a relevant person require the 
person—  (a) to 
provide such information as may be specified in the notice, or  (b) to 
produce such documents as may be so specified.  (2) An 
officer may exercise powers under this paragraph only if the information or 
documents sought to be obtained as a result are reasonably required in 
connection with the exercise by the enforcement authority for whom the officer 
acts of its functions under this Schedule.  (3) Where an officer requires information to be 
provided or documents produced under this paragraph—  (a) the 
notice must set out the reasons why the officer requires the information to be 
provided or the documents produced, and  (b) the 
information must be provided or the documents produced—  (i) before the end of such reasonable period as may 
be specified in the notice; and  (ii) at 
such place as may be so specified.  (4) In 
relation to a document in electronic form the power to require production of it 
includes a power to require the production of a copy of it in legible form or in 
a form from which it can readily be produced in visible and legible form. 
 (5) An 
enforcement officer may take copies of, or make extracts from, any document 
produced under this paragraph.  (6) The 
production of a document does not affect any lien which a person has on the 
document.  Entry, inspection 
without a warrant  etc20 (1) Where an 
enforcement officer has reasonable cause to believe that any premises are being 
used by a relevant person in connection with the person’s business activities, 
the officer may on producing evidence of authority at any reasonable 
time—  (a) enter the premises;  (b) inspect the premises;  (c) observe the carrying on of business activities by 
the relevant person;  (d) inspect any document found on the 
premises;  (e) require any person on the premises to provide an 
explanation of any document or to state where it may be found.  (2) An 
enforcement officer may take copies of, or make extracts from, any document 
found under sub-paragraph (1).  (3) An 
officer may exercise powers under this paragraph only if the information or 
document sought to be obtained as a result is reasonably required in connection 
with the exercise by the enforcement authority for whom the officer acts of its 
functions under this Schedule.  (4) In 
this paragraph “premises” means any premises other than premises used only as a 
dwelling.  Entry to premises 
under warrant21 (1) A justice 
may issue a warrant under this paragraph if satisfied on information on oath 
given by an enforcement officer that there are reasonable grounds for believing 
that the first, second or third set of conditions is satisfied.  (2) The 
first set of conditions is—  (a) that there is on the premises specified in the 
warrant a document in relation to which a requirement could be imposed under 
paragraph 19(1)(b), and  (b) that if such a requirement were to be 
imposed—  (i) it 
would not be complied with, or  (ii) the document to which it relates would be 
removed, tampered with or destroyed.  (3) The 
second set of conditions is—  (a) that a person on whom a requirement has been 
imposed under paragraph 19(1)(b) has failed (wholly or in part) to comply with 
it, and  (b) that there is on the premises specified in the 
warrant a document that has been required to be produced.  (4) The 
third set of conditions is—  (a) that an enforcement officer has been obstructed 
in the exercise of a power under paragraph 20, and  (b) that there is on the premises specified in the 
warrant a document that could be inspected under paragraph 20(1)(d).  (5) A 
justice may issue a warrant under this paragraph if satisfied on information on 
oath given by an officer that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting 
that—  (a) an 
offence under this Schedule has been, is being or is about to be committed by a 
relevant person, and  (b) there is on the premises specified in the warrant 
a document relevant to whether that offence has been, or is being or is about to 
be committed.  (6) A 
warrant issued under this paragraph shall authorise an enforcement 
officer—  (a) to 
enter the premises specified in the warrant;  (b) to 
search the premises and take possession of anything appearing to be a document 
specified in the warrant or to take, in relation to any such document, any other 
steps which may appear to be necessary for preserving it or preventing 
interference with it;  (c) to 
take copies of, or extracts from, any document specified in the warrant; 
 (d) to 
require any person on the premises to provide an explanation of any document 
appearing to be of the kind specified in the warrant or to state where it may be 
found;  (e) to 
use such force as may reasonably be necessary.  (7) Where a warrant is issued by a justice under 
sub-paragraph (1) or (5) on the basis of information on oath given by an officer 
of the FSA, for “an enforcement officer” in sub-paragraph (6) substitute “a 
constable”.  (8) In 
sub-paragraphs (1), (5) and (7), “justice” means—  (a) in 
relation to England and Wales, a justice of the peace;  (b) in 
relation to Scotland, a justice within the meaning of section 307 of the 
Criminal Procedure (Scotland) Act 1995 (c. 46) 
(interpretation);  (c) in 
relation to Northern Ireland, a lay magistrate.  (9) In 
the application of this paragraph to Scotland, the references in sub-paragraphs 
(1), (5) and (7) to information on oath are to be read as references to evidence 
on oath.  Restrictions on 
powers22 (1) This 
paragraph applies in relation to the powers conferred by—  (a) paragraph 19 (power to require information or 
documents),  (b) paragraph 20 (entry, inspection without warrant 
etc), or  (c) paragraph 21 (entry to premises under 
warrant).  (2) Those powers are not exercisable in relation to 
information or documents in respect of which a claim to legal professional 
privilege (in Scotland, to confidentiality of communications) could be 
maintained in legal proceedings.  (3) The 
exercise of those powers and the provision of information or production of 
documents under them is not otherwise subject to any restriction on the 
disclosure of information, whether imposed by statute or otherwise. Failure to comply 
with information requirement23 (1) If on an 
application made by—  (a) an 
enforcement authority, or  (b) a 
local weights and measures authority or DETINI pursuant to arrangements made 
with the  OFT—  (i) by 
or on behalf of the authority; or  (ii) by 
DETINI,  it appears to the court that a person (the 
“information defaulter”) has failed to do something that they were required to 
do under paragraph 19(1), the court may make an order under this paragraph. (2) An 
order under this paragraph may require the information defaulter—  (a) to 
do the thing that they failed to do within such period as may be specified in 
the order;  (b) otherwise to take such steps to remedy the 
consequences of the failure as may be so specified.  (3) If 
the information defaulter is a body corporate, a partnership or an 
unincorporated body of persons that is not a partnership, the order may require 
any officer of the body corporate, partnership or body, who is (wholly or 
partly) responsible for the failure to meet such costs of the application as are 
specified in the order.  (4) In 
this paragraph “the court” means—  (a) in 
England and Wales and Northern Ireland, the High Court or the county 
court;  (b) in 
Scotland, the Court of Session or the sheriff court.  Powers of local 
enforcement officers24 (1) A local 
enforcement officer may only exercise powers under this Part of this Schedule 
pursuant to arrangements made with the OFT—  (a) by 
or on behalf of the relevant local weights and measures authority, or 
 (b) by 
DETINI.  (2) Anything done or omitted to be done by, or in 
relation to, a local enforcement officer in the exercise or purported exercise 
of a power in this Part of this Schedule is treated for all purposes as if done 
or omitted to be done by, or in relation to, an officer of the OFT.  (3) Sub-paragraph (2) does not apply for the purposes 
of criminal proceedings brought against the local enforcement officer, the 
relevant local weights and measures authority, DETINI or the OFT, in respect of 
anything done or omitted to be done by the officer.  (4) A 
local enforcement officer must not disclose to any person other than the OFT and 
the relevant local weights and measures authority or, as the case may be, DETINI 
information obtained by the officer in the exercise of powers under this Part of 
this Schedule unless—  (a) the 
officer has the approval of the OFT to do so, or  (b) the 
officer is under a duty to make the disclosure.  (5) In 
this paragraph “the relevant local weights and measures authority”, in relation 
to a local enforcement officer, means the authority of which the officer is an 
officer.  Part 
6 Enforcement: civil 
penalties  Power to impose 
civil penalties25 (1) An 
enforcement authority may impose a penalty of such amount as it considers 
appropriate on a person who fails to comply with a requirement imposed— 
 (a) by 
a direction under this Schedule, or  (b) by 
a condition of a licence under paragraph 17.  For this purpose “appropriate” means effective, 
proportionate and dissuasive. (2) No 
such penalty is to be imposed if the authority is satisfied that the person took 
all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to ensure that the 
requirement would be complied with.  (3) In 
deciding whether to impose a penalty for failure to comply with a requirement, 
an enforcement authority must consider whether the person followed any relevant 
guidance which was at the time—  (a) issued by a supervisory authority or any other 
appropriate body,  (b) approved by the Treasury, and  (c) published in a manner approved by the Treasury as 
suitable in their opinion to bring the guidance to the attention of persons 
likely to be affected by it.  (4) In 
sub-paragraph (3) “appropriate body” means a body which regulates or is 
representative of any trade, profession, business or employment carried on by 
the person.  (5) A 
person on whom a penalty is imposed under this paragraph is not liable to be 
proceeded against for an offence under paragraph 30 in respect of the same 
failure.  Imposition of 
penalty by  HMRC: 
procedure and reviews26 (1) This 
paragraph applies where HMRC decide to impose a penalty under paragraph 25 on a 
person.  (2) HMRC must give the person notice of—  (a) their decision to impose the penalty and its 
amount,  (b) the 
reasons for imposing the penalty,  (c) the 
right to a review under this paragraph, and  (d) the 
right to appeal under paragraph 28.  (3) The 
person may by notice to HMRC require them to review their decision.  (4) A 
notice requiring a review may not be given after the end of the period of 45 
days beginning with the day on which HMRC first gave the person notice under 
sub-paragraph (2).  (5) On 
a review under this paragraph, HMRC must either—  (a) confirm the decision, or  (b) withdraw or vary the decision and take such 
further steps (if any) in consequence of the withdrawal or variation as they 
consider appropriate.  (6) Where HMRC do not, within the period of 45 days 
beginning with the day the notice under sub-paragraph (3) was given, give notice 
to the person of their determination of the review, they are to be taken to have 
confirmed their decision.  Imposition of 
penalty by other enforcement authority: procedure27 (1) This 
paragraph applies if the FSA, the OFT or DETINI (“the authority”) proposes to 
impose a penalty under paragraph 25 on a person.  (2) The 
authority must give the person notice of—  (a) the 
proposal to impose the penalty and the proposed amount,  (b) the 
reasons for imposing the penalty, and  (c) the 
right to make representations to the authority within a specified period (which 
may not be less than 28 days).  (3) The 
authority must then decide, within a reasonable period, whether to impose a 
penalty under paragraph 25 and must give the person notice—  (a) if 
it decides not to impose a penalty, of that decision;  (b) if 
it decides to impose a penalty, of the following matters—  (i) the 
decision to impose a penalty and the amount,  (ii) the reasons for the decision, and  (iii) the right to appeal under paragraph 28. 
 Appeal against 
imposition of civil penalty28 (1) A person 
may appeal to the tribunal against—  (a) a 
decision of HMRC on a review under paragraph 26;  (b) a 
decision of the FSA or the OFT under paragraph 27.  (2) A 
person may appeal to the High Court in Northern Ireland against a decision of 
DETINI under paragraph 27.  (3) On 
the appeal the tribunal or court may—  (a) set 
aside the decision appealed against, and  (b) impose any penalty that could have been imposed 
by the body whose decision is appealed or remit the matter to that body. 
 (4) An 
appeal against a decision of HMRC may not be made after the end of the period of 
30 days beginning with—  (a) the 
date of the document notifying the person of the decision, or  (b) if 
paragraph 26(6) (deemed confirmation of decision) applies, the day after the end 
of the period mentioned there.  (5) In 
this paragraph “the tribunal” means the First-tier Tribunal or, where so 
provided by or determined under Tribunal Procedure Rules, the Upper 
Tribunal.  (6) The 
Treasury may by order provide that, until a time specified in the order, appeals 
under sub-paragraph (1) are to be made—  (a) in 
the case of a decision of HMRC, to a  VAT and duties tribunal;  (b) in 
the case of a decision of the FSA, to the Financial Services and Markets 
Tribunal;  (c) in 
the case of a decision of the OFT, to the Consumer Credit Appeals 
Tribunal;  (rather than to the tribunal). (7) An 
order under sub-paragraph (6) may provide that any enactment applies (with or 
without modifications) in relation to an appeal to a tribunal mentioned in 
paragraph (a), (b) or (c) of that sub-paragraph.  (8) Such an order is subject to negative resolution 
procedure.  Payment and recovery 
of civil penalties29 (1) A penalty 
imposed under paragraph 25 is payable to the enforcement authority that imposed 
it.  (2) Any 
such penalty is a debt due to the authority and is recoverable 
accordingly.  Part 
7 Enforcement: 
offences  Offences: 
failure to comply with requirement imposed by direction30 (1) A person 
who fails to comply with a requirement imposed by a direction under this 
Schedule commits an offence, subject to the following provisions.  (2) No 
offence is committed if the person took all reasonable steps and exercised all 
due diligence to ensure that the requirement would be complied with.  (3) In 
deciding whether a person has committed an offence under this paragraph the 
court must consider whether the person followed any relevant guidance that was 
at the time—  (a) issued by a supervisory authority or any other 
appropriate body,  (b) approved by the Treasury, and  (c) published in a manner approved by the Treasury as 
suitable in their opinion to bring the guidance to the attention of persons 
likely to be affected by it.  (4) In 
sub-paragraph (3) “appropriate body” means a body that regulates or is 
representative of any trade, profession, business or employment carried on by 
the alleged offender.  (5) A 
person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable—  (a) on 
summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum;  (b) on 
conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or 
a fine or both.  (6) A 
person who is convicted of an offence under this paragraph is not liable to a 
penalty under paragraph 25 in respect of the same failure.  Offences in 
connection with licences31 (1) A person 
commits an offence who for the purpose of obtaining a licence under paragraph 
17—  (a) provides information that is false in a material 
respect or a document that is not what it purports to be, and  (b) knows that, or is reckless as to whether, the 
information is false or the document is not what it purports to be.  (2) A 
person guilty of an offence under this paragraph is liable on conviction on 
indictment to imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years or a fine or 
both.  Extra-territorial 
application of offences32 (1) An 
offence under this Schedule may be committed by a United Kingdom person by 
conduct wholly or partly outside the United Kingdom.  (2) Nothing in this paragraph affects any criminal 
liability arising otherwise than under this paragraph.  Prosecution of 
offences33 (1) Proceedings for an offence under this Schedule 
may be instituted in England and Wales only by—  (a) the 
FSA;  (b) the 
Director of Revenue and Customs Prosecutions;  (c) the 
OFT;  (d) a 
local weights and measures authority; or  (e) the 
Director of Public Prosecutions.  (2) Proceedings for an offence under this Schedule 
may be instituted in Northern Ireland only by—  (a) the 
FSA;  (b) HMRC;  (c) the 
OFT;  (d) DETINI; or  (e) the 
Director of Public Prosecutions for Northern Ireland.  (3) In 
section 168(4) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8) 
(appointment by FSA of persons to carry out investigation), after paragraph (b) 
insert—  “(ba) a person may be guilty of an offence under 
Schedule 7 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 2008 (terrorist financing or money 
laundering);”.  (4) In 
section 402(1) of that Act (power of FSA to institute proceedings), omit the 
“or” before paragraph (b) and after that paragraph insert— “or  (c) Schedule 7 to the Counter-Terrorism Act 
2008 (terrorist financing or money laundering).”.  (5) HMRC may conduct a criminal investigation into 
any offence under this Schedule.  (6) In 
sub-paragraph (5) “criminal investigation” has the meaning given by section 
35(5)(b) of the Commissioners for Revenue and Customs Act 2005 (c. 
11).  Jurisdiction to try 
offences34 Where an offence under this Schedule is committed 
outside the United Kingdom—  (a) proceedings for the offence may be taken at any 
place in the United Kingdom, and  (b) the 
offence may for all incidental purposes be treated as having been committed at 
any such place.  Time limit for 
summary proceedings35 (1) An 
information relating to an offence under this Schedule that is triable by a 
magistrates' court in England and Wales may be so tried if it is laid— 
 (a) at 
any time within three years after the commission of the offence, and  (b) within twelve months after the date on which 
evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings 
comes to the knowledge of the prosecutor.  (2) Summary proceedings in Scotland for an offence 
under this Schedule—  (a) must not be commenced after the expiration of 
three years from the commission of the offence;  (b) subject to that, may be commenced at any time 
within twelve months after the date on which evidence sufficient in the Lord 
Advocate’s opinion to justify the proceedings came to the knowledge of the Lord 
Advocate.  Section 136(3) of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) 
Act 1995 (c. 
46) (date when proceedings deemed to be commenced) applies for the purposes 
of this sub-paragraph as for the purposes of that section. (3) A 
magistrates' court in Northern Ireland has jurisdiction to hear and determine a 
complaint charging the commission of a summary offence under this Schedule 
provided that the complaint is made—  (a) within three years from the time when the offence 
was committed, and  (b) within twelve months from the date on which 
evidence sufficient in the opinion of the prosecutor to justify the proceedings 
comes to the knowledge of the prosecutor.  (4) For 
the purposes of this paragraph a certificate of the prosecutor (or, in Scotland, 
the Lord Advocate) as to the date on which such evidence as is referred to above 
came to their notice is conclusive evidence.  Liability of 
officers of bodies corporate  etc36 (1) If an 
offence under this Schedule committed by a body corporate is shown—  (a) to 
have been committed with the consent or the connivance of an officer of the body 
corporate, or  (b) to 
be attributable to any neglect on the part of any such officer,  the officer as well as the body corporate is guilty 
of an offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. (2) If 
an offence under this Schedule committed by a partnership is shown—  (a) to 
have been committed with the consent or the connivance of a partner, or 
 (b) to 
be attributable to any neglect on the part of a partner,  the partner as well as the partnership is guilty of 
an offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. (3) If 
an offence under this Schedule committed by an unincorporated association (other 
than a partnership) is shown—  (a) to 
have been committed with the consent or the connivance of an officer of the 
association, or  (b) to 
be attributable to any neglect on the part of any such officer,  the officer as well as the association is guilty of 
an offence and liable to be proceeded against and punished accordingly. (4) If 
the affairs of a body corporate are managed by its members, sub-paragraph (1) 
applies in relation to the acts and defaults of a member in connection with the 
member’s functions of management as if the member were a director of the 
body.  (5) In 
this paragraph—  Proceedings against 
unincorporated bodies37 (1) Proceedings for an offence under this Schedule 
alleged to have been committed by a partnership or an unincorporated association 
must be brought in the name of the partnership or association (and not in that 
of its members).  (2) In 
proceedings for such an offence brought against a partnership or unincorporated 
association—  (a) section 33 of the Criminal Justice Act 1925 (c. 
86) (procedure on charge of offence against corporation) and Schedule 3 to the 
Magistrates' Courts Act 1980 (c. 43) (corporations) apply as they do in relation 
to a body corporate;  (b) section 70 of the Criminal Procedure (Scotland) 
Act 1995 (c. 
46) (proceedings against bodies corporate) applies as it does in relation to 
a body corporate;  (c) section 18 of the Criminal Justice (Northern 
Ireland) Act 1945 (c. 15 (N.I.)) (procedure on charge) and Schedule 4 to the 
Magistrates' Courts (Northern Ireland) Order 1981 (S.I. 1981/1675 (N.I. 26)) (corporations) 
apply as they do in relation to a body corporate.  (3) Rules of court relating to the service of 
documents have effect in relation to proceedings for an offence under this 
Schedule as if the partnership or association were a body corporate.  (4) A 
fine imposed on the partnership or association on its conviction of such an 
offence is to be paid out of the funds of the partnership or association. 
 Part 
8 Supplementary and 
general  Report to 
Parliament38 (1) As soon 
as reasonably practicable after the end of each calendar year, the Treasury 
must—  (a) prepare a report about their exercise during that 
year of their functions under this Schedule, and  (b) lay 
a copy of the report before Parliament.  (2) Sub-paragraph (1) does not apply in relation to a 
year if no direction under this Schedule is in force at any time in that 
year.  Supervision by 
supervisory authority39 (1) A 
supervisory authority must take appropriate measures to monitor persons 
operating in the financial sector for whom it is the supervisory authority for 
the purpose of securing compliance by those persons with the requirements of any 
directions under this Schedule.  (2) For 
the purposes of this Schedule—  (a) the 
FSA is the supervisory authority for—  (i) credit institutions that are authorised 
persons;  (ii) financial institutions (except money service 
businesses that are not authorised persons and consumer credit financial 
institutions);  (b) the 
OFT is the supervisory authority for consumer credit financial 
institutions;  (c) HMRC are the supervisory authority for money 
service businesses that are not authorised persons;  (d) DETINI is the supervisory authority for credit 
unions in Northern Ireland.  (3) Where under sub-paragraph (2) there is more than 
one supervisory authority for a person, the authorities may agree that one of 
them will act as the supervisory authority for that person for the purposes of 
this Schedule.  (4) Where an agreement has been made under 
sub-paragraph (3), the authority that has agreed to act as the supervisory 
authority must—  (a) where directions under this Schedule have been 
given to specified persons operating in the financial sector, notify those 
persons;  (b) where such directions have been given to all 
persons operating in the financial sector or to a description of such persons, 
publish the agreement in such way as it considers appropriate.  (5) Where no agreement has been made under 
sub-paragraph (3), the supervisory authorities for a person must co-operate in 
the performance of their functions under this paragraph.  Assistance in 
preparing guidance40 The Treasury must provide such assistance as may 
reasonably be required by a supervisory authority or other body drawing up 
guidance that, when issued and published with the approval of the Treasury, 
would be relevant guidance for the purposes of paragraph 25(3) (civil penalties) 
and 30(3) (offences: failure to comply with requirement imposed by 
direction).  Functions of 
Financial Services Authority41 (1) The 
functions of the FSA under this Schedule shall be treated for the purposes of 
Parts 1, 2 and 4 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8) 
(general provisions relating to the Authority) as if they were functions 
conferred on the FSA under that Act.  (2) Any 
penalty under paragraph 25 (civil penalties) received by the FSA is to be 
applied towards expenses incurred by it in connection with its functions under 
this Schedule or for any incidental purpose.  Notices42 (1) A notice 
under this Schedule may be given to a person—  (a) by 
posting it to the person’s last known address, or  (b) where the person is a body corporate, partnership 
or unincorporated association, by posting it to the registered or principal 
office of the body, partnership or association.  (2) Where the Treasury are under a duty to give a 
notice to a person but do not have an address for them, they must make 
arrangements for the notice to be given to the person at the first available 
opportunity.  Crown 
application43 (1) This 
Schedule binds the Crown, subject as follows.  (2) No 
contravention by the Crown of a provision of this Schedule makes the Crown 
criminally liable.  (3) The 
following courts may, on the application of a person appearing to the court to 
have an interest, declare unlawful any act or omission of the Crown that 
constitutes such a contravention—  (a) the 
High Court in England and Wales;  (b) the 
Court of Session;  (c) the 
High Court in Northern Ireland.  (4) Nothing in this paragraph affects Her Majesty in 
her private capacity.  This is to be construed as if section 38(3) of the 
Crown Proceedings Act 1947 (c. 44) (meaning of Her Majesty in her private 
capacity) were contained in this Schedule. Meaning of “United 
Kingdom person”44 (1) In this 
Schedule “United Kingdom person” means a United Kingdom national or a body 
incorporated or constituted under the law of any part of the United 
Kingdom.  (2) For 
this purpose a United Kingdom national is an individual who is—  (a) a 
British citizen, a British overseas territories citizen, a British National 
(Overseas) or a British Overseas citizen;  (b) a 
person who under the British Nationality Act 1981 (c. 61) is a British subject; 
or  (c) a 
British protected person within the meaning of that Act.  (3) Her 
Majesty may by Order in Council extend the definition in sub-paragraph (1) so as 
to apply to bodies incorporated or constituted under the law of any of the 
Channel Islands, the Isle of Man or any British overseas territory.  Interpretation45 (1) In this 
Schedule—  
                            
                                “authorised person” means a person who 
is authorised for the purposes of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (c. 8);
                                “business relationship” means a 
business, professional or commercial relationship between a relevant person and 
a customer, which is expected by the relevant person, at the time when contact 
is established, to have an element of duration;
                                “conduct” includes acts and 
omissions;
                                “consumer credit financial institution” 
means a financial institution that under section 21 of the Consumer Credit Act 
1974 (c. 39) requires a licence to carry on a consumer credit business, other 
than— 
                                    
                                        
                                            (a) a person covered by a group licence 
issued by the Office of Fair Trading under section 22 of that Act, (b) a money service business, or (c) an authorised 
person;
                                “country” includes territory;
                                “document” means information recorded 
in any form;
                                “money service business” means an 
undertaking which by way of business operates a currency exchange office, 
transmits money (or any representations of monetary value) by any means or 
cashes cheques which are made payable to customers;
                                “notice” means a notice in 
writing. (2) In 
this Schedule any reference to an amount in one currency includes the equivalent 
amount in any other currency.  (3) Unless otherwise defined, expressions used in 
this Schedule and in—  (a) Directive 2005/60/EC of 
the European Parliament and of the Council of 26th October 2005 on the 
prevention of the use of the financial system for the purpose of money 
laundering and terrorist financing, or  (b) Commission Directive 2006/70/EC of 
1st August 2006 laying down implementing measures for that directive, 
 have the same meaning as in the relevant 
directive. Index of defined 
expressions46 In this Schedule the following expressions are 
defined or otherwise explained by the provisions indicated—  
                            
                                
                                    
                                    
                                        | authorised person | paragraph 45(1) |  
                                        | the banking consolidation 
directive (in Part 2 of this Schedule) | paragraph 7 |  
                                        | biological weapon | paragraph 2(6) |  
                                        | business relationship | paragraph 45(1) |  
                                        | chemical weapon | paragraph 2(5) |  
                                        | conduct | paragraph 45(1) |  
                                        | consumer credit financial 
institution | paragraph 45(1) |  
                                        | country | paragraph 45(1) |  
                                        | credit institution | paragraph 5(1) |  
                                        | customer due diligence 
measures | paragraph 10(3) |  
                                        | designated person, in relation 
to a direction | paragraph 9(3) |  
                                        | DETINI | paragraph 18(1)(d) |  
                                        | document | paragraph 45(1) |  
                                        | enforcement authority | paragraph 18(1) |  
                                        | enforcement officer (in Part 5 
of this Schedule) | paragraph 18(2) |  
                                        | financial institution | paragraph 5(2) |  
                                        | the FSA | paragraph 18(1)(a) |  
                                        | HMRC | paragraph 18(1)(b) |  
                                        | the life assurance consolidation 
directive (in Part 2 of this Schedule) | paragraph 7 |  
                                        | local enforcement officer | paragraph 18(3) |  
                                        | the markets in financial 
instruments directive (in Part 2 of this Schedule) | paragraph 7 |  
                                        | money laundering | paragraph 2(2) |  
                                        | money service business | paragraph 45(1) |  
                                        | notice | paragraph 45(1) |  
                                        | nuclear weapon | paragraph 2(3) |  
                                        | the OFT | paragraph 18(1)(c) |  
                                        | persons operating in the 
financial sector | paragraph 4 |  
                                        | radiological weapon | paragraph 2(4) |  
                                        | relevant person, in relation to 
a direction | paragraph 3(2) |  
                                        | supervisory authority | paragraph 39(2) |  
                                        | terrorist financing | paragraph 2(1) |  
                                        | United Kingdom person | paragraph 44 |  SCHEDULE 8 Offences relating to information 
about members of armed forces  etc: supplementary provisions  The following Schedule is inserted after Schedule 8 to the 
Terrorism Act 2000 
(c. 11)— “SCHEDULE 
8A Offence under section 58A: supplementary 
provisions  Introduction1 (1) This Schedule makes supplementary 
provision relating to the offence in section 58A (eliciting, publishing or 
communicating information about members of the armed forces etc).  (2) The purpose of this Schedule is to comply 
with Directive 2000/31/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 8 
June 2000 on certain legal aspects of information society services, in 
particular electronic commerce, in the Internal Market (“the E-Commerce 
Directive”).  Domestic service 
providers: extension of liability2 (1) This paragraph applies where a service 
provider is established in the United Kingdom (a “domestic service 
provider”).  (2) Section 58A applies to a domestic service 
provider who—  (a) commits any of the acts specified in 
subsection (1) of that section in an  EEA state other than the United 
Kingdom, and  (b) does so in the course of providing 
information society services,  as it applies to a person who commits such an 
act in the United Kingdom. (3) In such a case—  (a) proceedings for the offence may be taken 
at any place in the United Kingdom, and  (b) the offence may for all incidental 
purposes be treated as having been committed at any such place.  Non-UK service 
providers: restriction on proceedings3 (1) This paragraph applies where a service 
provider is established in an EEA state other than the United Kingdom (a “non-UK 
service provider”).  (2) Proceedings for an offence under section 
58A must not be brought against a non-UK service provider in respect of anything 
done in the course of the provision of information society services unless the 
following conditions are met.  (3) The conditions are—  (a) that the bringing of proceedings is 
necessary for one of the following reasons—  (i) public policy,  (ii) public security, including the 
safeguarding of national security and defence;  (b) that the proceedings are brought against 
an information society service that prejudices the objectives referred to in 
paragraph (a) or presents a serious and grave risk of prejudice to those 
objectives;  (c) that the bringing of the proceedings is 
proportionate to those objectives.  Exceptions for mere 
conduits4 (1) A service provider is not guilty of an 
offence under section 58A in respect of anything done in the course of providing 
so much of an information society service as consists in—  (a) the provision of access to a communication 
network, or  (b) the transmission in a communication 
network of information provided by a recipient of the service,  if the following condition is satisfied. (2) The condition is that the service provider 
does not—  (a) initiate the transmission,  (b) select the recipient of the transmission, 
or  (c) select or modify the information contained 
in the transmission.  (3) For the purposes of sub-paragraph 
(1)—  (a) the provision of access to a communication 
network, and  (b) the transmission of information in a 
communication network,  includes the automatic, intermediate and 
transient storage of the information transmitted so far as the storage is solely 
for the purpose of carrying out the transmission in the network. (4) Sub-paragraph (3) does not apply if the 
information is stored for longer than is reasonably necessary for the 
transmission.  Exception for 
caching5 (1) This paragraph applies where an 
information society service consists in the transmission in a communication 
network of information provided by a recipient of the service.  (2) The service provider is not guilty of an 
offence under section 58A in respect of the automatic, intermediate and 
temporary storage of information so provided, if—  (a) the storage of the information is solely 
for the purpose of making more efficient the onward transmission of the 
information to other recipients of the service at their request, and  (b) the following conditions are 
satisfied.  (3) The first condition is that the service 
provider does not modify the information.  (4) The second condition is that the service 
provider complies with any conditions attached to having access to the 
information.  (5) The third condition is that if the service 
provider obtains actual knowledge that—  (a) the information at the initial source of 
the transmission has been removed from the network,  (b) access to it has been disabled, or 
 (c) a court or administrative authority has 
ordered the removal from the network of, or the disablement of access to, the 
information,  the service provider expeditiously removes 
the information or disables access to it. Exception for 
hosting6 (1) A service provider is not guilty of an 
offence under section 58A in respect of anything done in the course of providing 
so much of an information society service as consists in the storage of 
information provided by a recipient of the service, if the condition is 
met.  (2) The condition is that—  (a) the service provider had no actual 
knowledge when the information was provided that it contained offending 
material, or  (b) on obtaining actual knowledge that the 
information contained offending material, the service provider expeditiously 
removed the information or disabled access to it.  (3) “Offending material” means information 
about a person who is or has been—  (a) a member of Her Majesty’s forces, 
 (b) a member of any of the intelligence 
services, or  (c) a constable,  which is of a kind likely to be useful to a 
person committing or preparing an act of terrorism. (4) This paragraph does not apply if the 
recipient of the service is acting under the authority or control of the service 
provider.  (5) In this paragraph “the intelligence 
services” means the Security Service, the Secret Intelligence Service and 
                        GCHQ (within 
the meaning of section 3 of the Intelligence Services Act 1994 (c. 
13)).  Interpretation7 (1) In this Schedule—  
                            
                                “information society 
services”— 
                                    
                                        
                                            (a) has the meaning given in Article 
2(a) of the E-Commerce Directive (which refers to Article 1(2) of Directive 98/34/EC of the 
European Parliament and of the Council of 22 June 1998 laying down a procedure 
for the provision of information in the field of technical standards and 
regulations), and (b) is summarised in recital 17 of 
the E-Commerce Directive as covering “any service normally provided for 
remuneration, at a distance, by means of electronic equipment for the processing 
(including digital compression) and storage of data, and at the individual 
request of a recipient of a service”;
                                “recipient”, in relation to a 
service, means any person who, for professional ends or otherwise, uses an 
information society service, in particular for the purposes of seeking 
information or making it accessible;
                                “service provider” means a 
person providing an information society service. (2) For the purposes of this Schedule whether 
a service provider is established in the United Kingdom, or in some other EEA 
state, shall be determined in accordance with the following provisions— 
 (a) a service provider is established in the 
United Kingdom, or in a particular EEA state, if the service provider— 
 (i) effectively pursues an economic activity 
using a fixed establishment in the United Kingdom, or that EEA state, for an 
indefinite period, and  (ii) is a national of an EEA state or a company 
or firm mentioned in Article 48 of the  EEC Treaty;  (b) the presence or use in a particular place 
of equipment or other technical means of providing an information society 
service does not, of itself, constitute the establishment of a service 
provider;  (c) where it cannot be determined from which 
of a number of establishments a given information society service is provided, 
that service is to be regarded as provided from the establishment at the centre 
of the service provider’s activities relating to that service.”.  
                            Expand 
All Explanatory Notes (ENs) Section 99 SCHEDULE 9 Repeals and revocations 
                            Part 
1 Retention and use of 
fingerprints and samples  
                                
                                    
                                        
                                        
                                            | Short title and 
chapter | Extent of 
repeal |  
                                            | Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) | In Schedule 8, paragraph 
14(3). |  Part 
2 Disclosure of 
information and the intelligence services  
                                
                                    
                                        
                                        
                                            | Title and number | Extent of repeal or 
revocation |  
                                            | Anti-terrorism, Crime and 
Security Act 2001 
(c. 24) | Section 19(2)(a). |  
                                            | Representation of the People 
(England and Wales) Regulations 2001 (S.I. 2001/341) | Regulation 45E(3) and (4). In Regulation 109— 
                                                    
                                                        
                                                            (a) paragraph (1)(g) to (i); (b) in paragraph (4)(a), the words 
preceding paragraph (i); (c) paragraph (4)(b) and the word “and” 
immediately preceding it. In Regulation 115(2), “45E(3),”. |  
                                            | Representation of the People 
(Scotland) Regulations 2001 (S.I. 2001/497) | Regulation 45D(3) and (4). In Regulation 108— 
                                                    
                                                        
                                                            (a) paragraph (1)(g) to (i); (b) in paragraph (4)(a), the words 
preceding paragraph (i); (c) paragraph (4)(b) and the word “and” 
immediately preceding it. In Regulation 115(2), “45D(3),”. |  
                                            | Immigration, Asylum and 
Nationality Act 2006 (c. 13) | Section 38. |  
                                            | Statistics and Registration 
Service Act 2007 
(c. 18) | Section 39(4)(g). In section 67, the definition of “Intelligence 
Service”. |  Part 
3 Forfeiture  
                                
                                    
                                        
                                        
                                            | Short title and 
chapter | Extent of 
repeal |  
                                            | Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) | Section 54(7) to (9). Section 58(5) to (7). |  Part 
4 Financial restrictions 
proceedings  
                                
                                    
                                        
                                        
                                            | Title and number | Extent of 
revocation |  
                                            | These revocations do not 
affect an application made before the commencement of section 
63. |  
                                            | Terrorism (United Nations 
Measures) Order 2001 (S.I. 2001/3365) | Article 4(7) and (8). |  
                                            | Al-Qa'ida and Taliban (United 
Nations Measures) Order 2002 (S.I. 2002/111) | Article 8(7) and (8). |  
                                            | Terrorism (United Nations 
Measures) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/2657) | Article 5(4) and (5). |  
                                            | Al-Qaida and Taliban (United 
Nations Measures) Order 2006 (S.I. 2006/2952) | Article 5(4) and 
(5). |  Part 
5 Control orders 
                            
                                
                                    
                                        
                                        
                                            | Short title and 
chapter | Extent of 
repeal |  
                                            | Prevention of Terrorism Act 2005 (c. 2) | In section 3— 
                                                    
                                                        
                                                            (a) subsection (1)(c); (b) in subsection (7) the words “within 7 
days of the court’s giving permission or (as the case may be) making its 
determination on the reference”. Section 8(8). In the Schedule, in paragraph 5(1)(a) the words “, at any time 
after a control order has been made,”. |  Part 
6 Pre-charge 
detention  
                                
                                    
                                        
                                        
                                            | Short title and 
Chapter | Extent of 
repeal |  
                                            | Terrorism Act 2000 (c. 11) | In Schedule 8, in paragraph 
29(4)(a) and (c), the words “after consulting the Lord 
Chancellor”. |  |